A nurse is planning care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Collecting data from a client who reports unilateral calf pain when ambulating.
Taking a telephone prescription for a client who is to be transferred from PACU.
Reassuring the partner of a client who sustained a closed head injury.
Reinforcing a client's dressing on an above-the-knee amputation surgical site.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should prioritize collecting data from a client who reports unilateral calf pain when ambulating. This symptom could indicate the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a potentially life-threatening condition. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, often in the lower extremities. If left untreated, the clot can dislodge and travel to the lungs, causing a pulmonary embolism. Immediate assessment is crucial to rule out DVT and provide appropriate interventions. The nurse should assess the client's calf for swelling, redness, warmth, and tenderness and may also order diagnostic tests like a duplex ultrasound.
Choice B rationale:
Taking a telephone prescription for a client being transferred from the PACU is important but not the top priority in this situation. While timely transfer and adequate post-operative care are essential, addressing a client with unilateral calf pain and the potential for a DVT takes precedence due to the risk of a life-threatening complication.
Choice C rationale:
Reassuring the partner of a client who sustained a closed head injury is a compassionate action but should not be the first priority. The partner's emotional support can be provided once the immediate medical concerns have been addressed.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing a client's dressing on an above-the-knee amputation surgical site is important for the client's post-operative care, but it is not the highest priority when compared to the possibility of a DVT. The nurse should address the client's calf pain first and then attend to the dressing reinforcement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results indicate a low pH (acidemia) and high PaCO2, which is characteristic of respiratory acidosis. Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the body, leading to an accumulation of CO2 and a decrease in pH. In this case, the high PaCO2 (50 mm Hg) indicates that the client is retaining carbon dioxide, likely due to impaired ventilation. The normal pH range is 7.35 to 7.45, and the normal PaCO2 range is 35 to 45 mm Hg. These ABG values reflect an acid-base imbalance in the respiratory system, specifically, respiratory acidosis.
Choice B rationale:
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated pH and an increase in bicarbonate (HCO3) levels. This is not the condition described in the client's ABG results, as the pH is low (acidemic) and HCO3 levels are within the normal range (24 mEq/L).
Choice C rationale:
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH and a decreased HCO3 level. The client's ABG results do not align with metabolic acidosis since the pH is low (acidemic) and the HCO3 level is within the normal range (24 mEq/L).
Choice D rationale:
Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by a high pH and low PaCO2. The client's ABG results do not match this condition as the pH is low (acidemic) and the PaCO2 is high (50 mm Hg), indicating respiratory acidosis. Therefore, choice A, respiratory acidosis, is the correct interpretation of the ABG results.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.
Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.
Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.
Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.
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