A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has COPD. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Plan to have the client lay down for 1 hr after meals.
Restrict the client’s fluid intake to less than 1 L/day.
Encourage the client to use the upper chest for respiration.
The Correct Answer is A
Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that helps to slow down the breathing rate and keep the airways open longer. This improves gas exchange and reduces the work of breathing. Pursed-lip breathing also helps to prevent air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs, which are common complications of COPD.
Choice B is wrong because laying down for 1 hour after meals can increase the pressure on the diaphragm and make breathing more difficult. It can also increase the risk of aspiration and reflux.
Choice C is wrong because restricting the client’s fluid intake to less than 1 L/day can lead to dehydration and thickening of secretions, which can obstruct the airways and impair gas exchange. Fluid intake should be adequate to maintain hydration and thin secretions.
Choice D is wrong because using the upper chest for respiration is a sign of inefficient breathing and respiratory distress.
It can increase the oxygen demand and cause fatigue. The client should be encouraged to use the diaphragm and abdominal muscles for respiration, which are more efficient and reduce the work of breathing.
Normal ranges for oxygen saturation are 95% to 100%, for arterial blood gas pH are 7.35 to 7.45, for PaCO2 are 35 to 45 mmHg, for PaO2 are 80 to 100 mmHg, and for HCO3 are 22 to 26 mEq/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues. Fibromyalgia often co-exists with other conditions, such as irritable bowel syndrome, chronic fatigue syndrome, migraine and other types of headaches. One of the main symptoms of fibromyalgia is widespread pain that has lasted for at least three months. To be considered widespread, the pain must occur on both sides of your body and above and below your waist. The pain could also be felt in specific areas called tender points. These are places on the body where even light pressure causes pain. There are 18 possible tender points on the body. Having pain in at least 11 of these points is one way to help diagnose fibromyalgia.
Choice A is wrong because chronic ocular pain related to stress, fatigue, and certain triggers is not a typical symptom of fibromyalgia.
Ocular pain is more likely to be caused by other conditions, such as dry eye syndrome, glaucoma, or eye infections.
Choice B is wrong because pain and sensitivity in the upper extremities and neck are not enough to indicate fibromyalgia. The pain must be widespread and affect both sides of the body and above and below the waist. Choice C is wrong because dull joint pain that accompanies physical exertion and which is relieved with rest is not a characteristic of fibromyalgia. The pain associated with fibromyalgia is often described as a constant dull ache that does not improve with rest. It may also be accompanied by other symptoms, such as fatigue, cognitive difficulties, and sleep problems.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
his intervention can help prevent pressure ulcers by reducing the amount of pressure on bony prominences and promoting blood circulation to the skin.
Choice A is wrong because placing the patient in a side-lying position only can increase the risk of skin breakdown by limiting the patient’s mobility and exposing the same areas to pressure. The patient should be repositioned frequently and encouraged to change positions if able.
Choice B is wrong because massaging bony prominences can cause tissue damage and increase the risk of skin breakdown by impairing blood flow to the area. Massaging should be avoided over bony prominences and areas of redness.
Choice D is wrong because keeping the head of the bed elevated higher than 30 degrees can cause shearing forces on the skin, which can lead to skin breakdown. The head of the bed should be kept at the lowest degree of elevation possible.
Choice E is wrong because inspecting skin every shift is not enough for a patient at risk for impaired skin integrity. The skin should be inspected at least every 2 hours or more frequently depending on the patient’s condition. Early detection of skin changes can help prevent further damage and promote healing.
Normal ranges for skin integrity are:
• Skin color: consistent with ethnicity and genetic background, no pallor, cyanosis, or jaundice.
• Skin moisture: dry to touch, no excessive perspiration or dryness. • Skin texture: smooth, soft, intact, with even surface.
• Skin temperature: warm to touch, no hyperthermia or hypothermia. • Skin turgor: elastic, returns to original shape after being pinched. • Skin integrity: no lesions, wounds, abrasions, or ulcers.
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