The nurse graduate is reviewing his scope of practice.
Which of the following does he correctly identify as outlining the legal scope of practice for nursing?

Nurse Practice Act.

Nursing process.

Code of Ethics.

Facility policies and procedures.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The Nurse Practice Act is a law that outlines the legal scope of practice for nursing in each state. It defines the roles, functions, responsibilities and activities that a nurse is educated, competent and authorized to perform. The Nurse Practice Act also establishes the regulatory bodies that create and implement rules and regulations to protect the public.

Choice B. Nursing process is wrong because it is a systematic method of providing nursing care, not a legal document that defines the scope of practice.

Choice C. Code of Ethics is wrong because it is a set of principles that guide the moral and professional conduct of nurses, not a legal document that defines the scope of practice.

Choice D. Facility policies and procedures are wrong because they are specific guidelines for each healthcare organization, not a legal document that defines the scope of practice.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This action is intended to prevent a sentinel event, which is a patient safety event that results in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm. A sentinel event is a serious adverse event that signals the need for immediate investigation and response. Removing the wrong arm would be a devastating and irreversible outcome for the patient and the health care provider.

Choice A is wrong because the lack of healing of the stump is not a sentinel event. It is a possible complication of amputation that may be related to the natural course of the patient’s illness or underlying condition.

Choice B is wrong because ineffective control of the client’s pain is not a sentinel event. It is a quality of care issue that may affect the patient’s comfort and recovery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.

Choice D is wrong because the client being mildly sedated is not a sentinel event. It is a level of anesthesia that may be appropriate for some types of surgery, but it does not result in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.

A. Place the patient in a side-lying position only. B. Massage bony prominences. C. Use positioning devices such as foam wedges. D. Keep the head of the bed elevated higher than 30 degrees. E. Inspect skin every shift.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

his intervention can help prevent pressure ulcers by reducing the amount of pressure on bony prominences and promoting blood circulation to the skin.

Choice A is wrong because placing the patient in a side-lying position only can increase the risk of skin breakdown by limiting the patient’s mobility and exposing the same areas to pressure. The patient should be repositioned frequently and encouraged to change positions if able.

Choice B is wrong because massaging bony prominences can cause tissue damage and increase the risk of skin breakdown by impairing blood flow to the area. Massaging should be avoided over bony prominences and areas of redness.

Choice D is wrong because keeping the head of the bed elevated higher than 30 degrees can cause shearing forces on the skin, which can lead to skin breakdown. The head of the bed should be kept at the lowest degree of elevation possible.

Choice E is wrong because inspecting skin every shift is not enough for a patient at risk for impaired skin integrity. The skin should be inspected at least every 2 hours or more frequently depending on the patient’s condition. Early detection of skin changes can help prevent further damage and promote healing.

Normal ranges for skin integrity are:

• Skin color: consistent with ethnicity and genetic background, no pallor, cyanosis, or jaundice.

• Skin moisture: dry to touch, no excessive perspiration or dryness. • Skin texture: smooth, soft, intact, with even surface.

• Skin temperature: warm to touch, no hyperthermia or hypothermia. • Skin turgor: elastic, returns to original shape after being pinched. • Skin integrity: no lesions, wounds, abrasions, or ulcers.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The nurse graduate is reviewing his scope of practice. Which of the following does he correctly identify as outlining the legal scope of practice for nursing?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

While preparing a client for surgery, the nurse marks the arm that is to be amputated and participates in a “time-out” procedure before the surgery begins. Which sentinel event is this action intended to prevent?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The RN identifies that a client is at risk for impaired skin integrity. Which interventions should the nurse add to this client’s plan of care?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department with an ankle injury. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as localized inflammation of the tissues?

A charge nurse is providing an inservice for staff nurses on the use of new IV pumps. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take to best evaluate staff competency with the new equipment?

A new nurse is working in a hospital. Which of the following actions by the nurse is NOT related to one of the National Patient Safety Goals?

A home health nurse visits a client who has COPD and receives oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

A charge nurse is discussing evidence-based practice (EBP) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the hierarchy of evidence?

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about preventing health care associated infections (HAIs). The nurse should include which of the following as a common cause of these infections?

A client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis asks what can be done to decrease the risk of actually developing the disorder. Which intervention would be the most beneficial for this client?

Which thermoregulatory condition is an elderly person most at risk for?

The nurse graduate is reviewing his scope of practice.
Which of the following does he correctly identify as outlining the legal scope of practice for nursing?