An elderly man fell during his hospitalization and has died from a head injury sustained in the fall.
What is the role of the risk manager in this situation?
To find the root cause so that the person who is responsible can be identified.
To protect the nursing staff from litigation.
To find the root cause so preventative measures can be put in place.
To determine why the nurses were never told that the patient was a high fall risk.
The Correct Answer is C
The role of the risk manager is to identify and analyze the factors that contributed to the adverse event and to implement strategies to prevent or reduce the likelihood of recurrence. The risk manager is not concerned with assigning blame or protecting the staff from litigation, but rather with improving the quality and safety of care.
Choice A is wrong because it implies a punitive approach that does not address the underlying system issues.
Choice B is wrong because it suggests a defensive attitude that does not foster a culture of learning and improvement.
Choice D is wrong because it assumes that the nurses were not aware of the patient’s fall risk, which may not be the case.
The risk manager should investigate all aspects of the situation, including the communication and documentation of the patient’s fall risk assessment and interventions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This helps increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and corrects anemia.
Choice B is wrong because erythropoietin is not given to all people with anemia. It is only used for certain types of anemia, such as those caused by chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because erythropoietin is not given for iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is treated with iron supplements and dietary changes.
Choice D is wrong because erythropoietin does not stimulate bone marrow production of white blood cells. White blood cells are involved in immune responses and are produced by different growth factors.
Question 22.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues. Fibromyalgia often co-exists with other conditions, such as irritable bowel syndrome, chronic fatigue syndrome, migraine and other types of headaches. One of the main symptoms of fibromyalgia is widespread pain that has lasted for at least three months. To be considered widespread, the pain must occur on both sides of your body and above and below your waist. The pain could also be felt in specific areas called tender points. These are places on the body where even light pressure causes pain. There are 18 possible tender points on the body. Having pain in at least 11 of these points is one way to help diagnose fibromyalgia.
Choice A is wrong because chronic ocular pain related to stress, fatigue, and certain triggers is not a typical symptom of fibromyalgia.
Ocular pain is more likely to be caused by other conditions, such as dry eye syndrome, glaucoma, or eye infections.
Choice B is wrong because pain and sensitivity in the upper extremities and neck are not enough to indicate fibromyalgia. The pain must be widespread and affect both sides of the body and above and below the waist. Choice C is wrong because dull joint pain that accompanies physical exertion and which is relieved with rest is not a characteristic of fibromyalgia. The pain associated with fibromyalgia is often described as a constant dull ache that does not improve with rest. It may also be accompanied by other symptoms, such as fatigue, cognitive difficulties, and sleep problems.
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