Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse be LEAST likely to choose for a patient with appendicitis?
Fluid volume excess.
Risk for infection.
Ineffective thermoregulation.
Pain.
The Correct Answer is A
Fluid volume excess is wrong because appendicitis does not cause fluid retention or overload. It may cause fluid loss due to vomiting, fever, or rupture of the appendix. Therefore, a more appropriate nursing diagnosis would be the risk for deficient fluid volume.
Choice B. Risk for infection is correct because appendicitis is an inflammatory condition that can lead to bacterial infection, especially if the appendix ruptures and causes peritonitis or abscess formation.
Choice C. Ineffective thermoregulation is correct because appendicitis can cause fever due to inflammation and infection.
Choice D. Pain is correct because appendicitis causes acute abdominal pain that usually starts in the periumbilical area and then localizes to the right lower quadrant. The pain may be accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and rebound tenderness.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is an example of secondary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complications. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
A client who has a family history of breast cancer and is scheduled for a mammogram is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention is early detection of a disease before it progresses. Secondary prevention can include screenings and other forms of diagnostic tests.
This is an example of tertiary prevention, which is the action taken to stop the progress of the disease at the initial stage and prevent complication. An echocardiogram can help diagnose the severity and cause of heart failure and guide the treatment plan.
Choice C is wrong because it is not an example of any level of prevention.
A client who is asymptomatic is not scheduled for a series of tests because there is no indication of any disease or risk factor.
Choice D is wrong because it is an example of primary prevention, which is the action taken to prevent the development of disease.
A client who is scheduled to receive an influenza vaccination is protected from getting infected by the virus and developing flu-related complications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This helps increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and corrects anemia.
Choice B is wrong because erythropoietin is not given to all people with anemia. It is only used for certain types of anemia, such as those caused by chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy.
Choice C is wrong because erythropoietin is not given for iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is treated with iron supplements and dietary changes.
Choice D is wrong because erythropoietin does not stimulate bone marrow production of white blood cells. White blood cells are involved in immune responses and are produced by different growth factors.
Question 22.
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