A nurse is measuring the vital signs of a client he suspects has hypovolemic shock.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Low BP and high pulse rate.
Low BP and low pulse rate.
High BP and high pulse rate.
High BP and low pulse rate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a decrease in blood volume, leading to low blood pressure and compensatory mechanisms such as a high pulse rate. When the body experiences a significant loss of blood or fluid, it attempts to maintain perfusion to vital organs by increasing the heart rate to ensure an adequate blood supply. Low blood pressure and a high pulse rate are classic signs of hypovolemic shock.
Choice B rationale:
A low BP and low pulse rate are not indicative of hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is associated with a rapid and weak pulse rate as the body tries to compensate for decreased blood volume. A low pulse rate could suggest other conditions, such as bradycardia, rather than hypovolemic shock.
Choice C rationale:
High BP and high pulse rate are not typical findings in hypovolemic shock. Hypovolemic shock is characterized by low blood pressure and a high pulse rate as the body attempts to compensate for the reduced blood volume. High blood pressure is more commonly associated with conditions like hypertension, not hypovolemic shock.
Choice D rationale:
High BP and low pulse rate are not consistent with the characteristics of hypovolemic shock. As mentioned earlier, hypovolemic shock is marked by low blood pressure and a high pulse rate due to the body's efforts to maintain adequate perfusion. High blood pressure and a low pulse rate may suggest other medical conditions unrelated to hypovolemic shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tuberculosis treatment with rifampin typically lasts 6 to 9 months. Lifelong therapy is not required for TB, and unnecessary prolonged use increases the risk of drug resistance and hepatotoxicity.
Choice B rationale: Rifampin induces liver enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. It does not cause amenorrhea, but it necessitates the use of non-hormonal backup contraception.
Choice C rationale: Rifampin causes a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This can permanently stain soft contact lenses, so clients are advised to wear eyeglasses during the treatment course.
Choice D rationale: A yellow tint to the skin or sclera indicates jaundice, which is a sign of hepatotoxicity. This is a serious adverse effect rather than an expected reaction and must be reported immediately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Captopril.
Choice A: Captopril Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a persistent, non-productive cough. This cough occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a potent peptide that can induce coughing.
Choice B: Metoprolol Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, it is not typically associated with a non-productive cough.
Choice C: Furosemide Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention (edema) in people with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or a kidney disorder. While it can cause side effects like diarrhea, constipation, and loss of appetite, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Furosemide.
Choice D: Digoxin Digoxin is used to treat heart failure and irregular heartbeat. Common side effects include dizziness, slow or irregular heartbeat, and unusual tiredness or weakness. However, a non-productive cough is not a typical side effect of Digoxin.
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