A nurse reviewing the laboratory of a client who had a total thyroidectomy discovers that his calcium level is 7 mg/dL. Which of the following client findings should the nurse expect?
Hypertension.
Diaphoresis.
Muscle tetany.
Increased thirst.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Hypertension is not typically associated with low calcium levels. Hypertension is more commonly linked to issues with blood pressure regulation and not calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) is not a direct symptom of low calcium levels. Low calcium can lead to muscle cramps and tetany, but not sweating.
Choice C rationale:
Muscle tetany is a common manifestation of low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). It results from increased neuromuscular excitability, causing muscle spasms and contractions. A calcium level of 7 mg/dL is below the normal range, and this client is at risk for muscle tetany.
Choice D rationale:
Increased thirst is not a typical symptom of low calcium levels. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are primarily related to neuromuscular and cardiovascular changes, such as muscle tetany and cardiac arrhythmias.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should instruct the client to consume foods rich in potassium because furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. By consuming potassium-rich foods, the client can help maintain proper electrolyte balance. Common potassium-rich foods include bananas, oranges, potatoes, and leafy greens. It is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, as it can result in adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.
Choice B rationale:
Taking furosemide at bedtime is not necessary, and it is not a standard instruction. Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia, as it increases urine output. This option does not address the primary concern of managing pulmonary edema and the potential electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide use.
Choice C rationale:
Taking aspirin for headaches is not relevant to the client's condition of pulmonary edema or the use of furosemide. This choice does not provide valuable guidance to the client and may lead to unnecessary medication use.
Choice D rationale:
Expecting swelling in the hands and feet is not an appropriate instruction for a client with pulmonary edema. The goal of furosemide therapy is to reduce edema and fluid retention, not to expect or tolerate swelling. This option does not contribute to the client's well-being and recovery.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Monitor the client for black, tarry stools.
Choice A rationale:
Administering clopidogrel with each meal is not necessary. Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. The primary concern with clopidogrel is its potential to cause bleeding, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is more critical.
Choice B rationale:
Having suction equipment at the bedside is not specifically required for clients taking clopidogrel. This action is more relevant for clients at risk of airway obstruction or those undergoing procedures that might require suctioning.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the client for black, tarry stools is essential because it can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a known side effect of clopidogrel. This medication increases the risk of bleeding, so observing for signs of internal bleeding, such as melena (black, tarry stools), is crucial.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating contact precautions is not necessary for clients taking clopidogrel. Contact precautions are typically used to prevent the spread of infections, not for managing clients on antiplatelet therapy.
By understanding these rationales, the nurse can ensure the safe administration and monitoring of clopidogrel therapy.
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