A nurse is caring for a client who has Meniere’s disease. The nurse identifies that which of the following manifestations is caused by an excessive accumulation of endolymph fluid?
Myopia
Vertigo
Photophobia
Presbycusis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Myopia: Myopia refers to nearsightedness, which is caused by refractive errors in the eye and is not associated with Meniere's disease. Myopia results in difficulty seeing distant objects clearly.
B. Vertigo: Vertigo is a hallmark symptom of Meniere's disease and is caused by an excessive accumulation of endolymph fluid in the inner ear. Vertigo presents as a sensation of spinning or dizziness, often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and imbalance.
C. Photophobia: Photophobia refers to sensitivity to light, which can be associated with various eye conditions but is not a typical manifestation of Meniere's disease. Photophobia may occur in conditions such as migraine headaches or certain eye infections.
D. Presbycusis: Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, which typically occurs gradually over time and is not directly associated with Meniere's disease. Meniere's disease is characterized by sudden episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Dopamine: Dopamine is a catecholamine often used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in hypotensive states. It does not directly reduce intracranial pressure (ICP).
B. Mannitol: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic commonly used to reduce intracranial pressure in clients with conditions such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, traumatic brain injury, or cerebral edema. It works by drawing fluid from brain tissue into the bloodstream, thereby reducing cerebral edema and ICP.
C. Nicardipine: Nicardipine is a calcium channel blocker used primarily to lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies. While it can indirectly impact intracranial pressure by reducing cerebral perfusion pressure, its primary mechanism of action is not targeted at reducing ICP.
D. Phenytoin: Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used to prevent and control seizures. While it may be indicated in clients who have experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent seizures, it does not directly reduce intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Stress can contribute to the development of atrial flutter, but it is not the highest risk factor compared to other options.
B. While electrolyte imbalances resulting from vomiting and diarrhea can predispose someone to arrhythmias, they are not as significant a risk factor for atrial flutter as other conditions.
C. A family history of atrial flutter may increase the likelihood of developing the condition, but it is not as significant a risk factor compared to other options.
D. A history of myocardial infarction and stent placement indicates underlying heart disease, which is a significant risk factor for developing atrial flutter. Cardiac events like myocardial infarction can lead to structural changes in the heart, such as scarring or remodeling, which can predispose individuals to atrial flutter. Therefore, this client is at the highest risk for developing atrial flutter among the options provided.
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