A nurse has received report on a client who has a basilar skull fracture. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate with this client?
Pooling of blood and edema around the eyes
Ability to recall how the injury occurred
Bruising over the mastoid process
Chvostek’s sign
The Correct Answer is A
A. Pooling of blood and edema around the eyes: Basilar skull fractures can lead to leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the surrounding tissues, resulting in periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, due to pooling of blood and edema around the eyes. This finding is characteristic of basilar skull fractures and is caused by disruption of the meninges and subsequent CSF leakage into the soft tissues of the face.
B. Ability to recall how the injury occurred: Memory loss regarding the events surrounding the injury, known as post-traumatic amnesia, is common with basilar skull fractures. This amnesia occurs due to the impact of the injury on the brain and may involve retrograde amnesia (loss of memory of events leading up to the injury) and anterograde amnesia (loss of memory of events occurring after the injury).
C. Bruising over the mastoid process: Bruising over the mastoid process, known as Battle sign, is associated with basilar skull fractures. Battle sign results from blood accumulation (hematoma) in the mastoid region behind the ear due to fracture-related injury to the middle meningeal artery or other blood vessels. This finding typically develops 24-48 hours after the injury.
D. Chvostek’s sign: Chvostek's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, not basilar skull fractures. It is elicited by tapping the facial nerve (facial nerve spasm) and is indicative of neuromuscular irritability due to decreased calcium levels. Chvostek's sign is not directly related to basilar skull fractures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "Vision changes occur when the retina begins to breakdown and collect bits of debris": This statement does not accurately describe the changes that occur in the eye during retinal detachment. Vision changes in retinal detachment primarily occur due to the separation of the retina from its underlying tissue layers, rather than the breakdown and collection of debris within the retina.
B. "Vision changes occur when retinal tissue pulls away from the blood vessels in the eye": Retinal detachment occurs when the retina, which is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye, pulls away from its normal position along the inner wall of the eye. This separation disrupts the blood supply to the retina, leading to vision changes. The most common symptom of retinal detachment is the sudden appearance of floaters or flashes of light in the visual field, followed by a shadow or curtain effect as the detachment progresses. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying vision changes in retinal detachment.
C. "Vision changes occur when the cloudy lens alters the passage of light through the eye": This statement describes changes associated with cataracts, not retinal detachment. Cataracts involve clouding of the lens inside the eye, which can lead to vision changes such as blurriness or decreased visual acuity. However, cataracts are distinct from retinal detachment, which involves the separation of the retina from the inner wall of the eye.
D. "Vision changes occur suddenly due to complete obstruction of aqueous humor outflow": This statement describes the pathophysiology of acute angle-closure glaucoma, not retinal detachment. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden elevation of intraocular pressure due to complete obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, leading to rapid onset of symptoms such as severe eye pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Retinal detachment, on the other hand, is characterized by the separation of the retina from its normal position, resulting in distinct vision changes such as floaters, flashes of light, and visual field defects.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Pantoprazole: Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. It is primarily indicated for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcers, and other conditions related to excessive stomach acid production. It does not play a role in managing Meniere's disease, which is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.
B) Warfarin: Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clot formation. It is commonly prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism. Meniere's disease does not typically require anticoagulant therapy, so warfarin would not be indicated for its treatment.
C) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output. In some cases of Meniere's disease, especially those associated with excessive endolymphatic fluid buildup in the inner ear, furosemide may be prescribed to help reduce fluid volume and alleviate symptoms such as vertigo and pressure sensation in the ear.
D) Oxybutynin: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication primarily used to treat overactive bladder and urinary incontinence. It works by relaxing smooth muscle in the bladder, reducing bladder spasms and urinary urgency. While some individuals with Meniere's disease may experience associated symptoms such as frequent urination or urinary urgency, oxybutynin is not a standard treatment for Meniere's disease itself.
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