A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Crackles in lungs.
Decreased thirst.
Poor skin turgor.
Tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Crackles in the lungs are a common manifestation of heart failure. Heart failure can cause fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to crackles upon auscultation. This finding is due to pulmonary congestion and is indicative of heart failure exacerbation.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased thirst is not a typical manifestation of heart failure. In fact, patients with heart failure often experience increased thirst due to fluid shifts and increased blood volume, leading to increased urine output and dehydration.
Choice C rationale:
Poor skin turgor is not a specific manifestation of heart failure. Skin turgor is commonly assessed to determine hydration status, but it is not directly related to heart failure.
Choice D rationale:
Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is a common manifestation of heart failure. The heart beats faster to compensate for its decreased pumping efficiency. Tachycardia helps maintain cardiac output, but it is not a primary cause of heart failure; instead, it is a physiological response to the condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Wear a surgical mask when within 0.9 m (3 feet) of the client.
Choice A rationale:
Fresh flowers are generally discouraged in hospital settings for clients with compromised immune systems due to the risk of infection from soil or water, which can harbor harmful microorganisms. However, this is not specifically related to rubella, which is an airborne virus.
Choice B rationale:
Rubella is transmitted through airborne droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing a surgical mask when close to the client can help prevent the spread of the virus. This is especially important to protect individuals who are pregnant or may become pregnant, as rubella can cause serious birth defects.
Choice C rationale:
Negative-airflow pressure rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, such as tuberculosis. While rubella is also airborne, the current guidelines do not require a negative pressure room for its management.
Choice D rationale:
While limiting visitors can help control the spread of infection, it is not the primary action to take for a client with rubella. The focus should be on preventing the spread through droplet transmission, which is addressed by wearing a mask and practicing good hand hygiene.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Taking antibiotics when having a virus is not a correct understanding of infection prevention. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses and should only be used for bacterial infections under the guidance of a healthcare provider. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of infection prevention.
Choice B rationale:
Washing hands for at least 20 seconds with soap and water is the recommended practice for infection prevention. Washing hands for 10 seconds may not be sufficient to remove all germs effectively. This statement does not demonstrate a proper understanding of hand hygiene.
Choice C rationale:
Cleaning a cat's litter box during pregnancy is not recommended due to the risk of contracting toxoplasmosis, a parasitic infection that can harm the fetus. Pregnant individuals should avoid handling cat litter to prevent exposure to this infection. This statement indicates a lack of awareness regarding infection prevention during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Waiting 5 days after the chickenpox sores have crusted before visiting a person with chickenpox demonstrates an understanding of infection prevention. Chickenpox is highly contagious, and individuals should avoid close contact until the sores have fully healed and crusted over. This statement reflects appropriate knowledge about preventing the spread of contagious diseases during pregnancy.
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