A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking warfarin and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds and an INR of 7. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
Ferrous sulfate
Prednisone
Vitamin K
Heparin
The Correct Answer is C
A. Ferrous sulfate: This is an iron supplement and wouldn't be used to reverse warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
B. Prednisone: This is a steroid medication used for various inflammatory conditions and wouldn't be used to address excessive blood thinning.
C. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin poisoning or excessive anticoagulation. By providing vitamin K, the body can resume producing clotting factors, counteracting warfarin's effect.
D. Heparin: This is another blood thinner medication. While it can be used in specific situations, it wouldn't be the first choice to reverse warfarin's effect because it adds another layer of anticoagulation, which could be risky.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Have suction equipment at the bedside. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits blood clot formation. While it does not typically increase the risk of bleeding to the extent that requires constant suctioning, it's prudent to have suction equipment readily available for any patient who may be at risk of bleeding due to their underlying condition or concurrent medications. However, the administration of clopidogrel alone does not necessitate the need for constant suctioning.
B. Monitor the client for black, tarry stools. This is the correct answer. Clopidogrel, like other antiplatelet medications, increases the risk of bleeding, including gastrointestinal bleeding. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which can be a serious complication of clopidogrel therapy. Therefore, monitoring for this symptom is essential for early detection of potential bleeding complications.
C. Administer the medication with each meal. Clopidogrel can be administered with or without food, as it is not significantly affected by food intake. However, there is no specific recommendation to administer it with meals. The timing of administration may vary based on the prescriber's instructions or patient preferences, but it does not need to be consistently administered with meals.
D. Initiate contact precautions. Clopidogrel therapy does not require contact precautions. Contact precautions are typically implemented for patients with contagious infections that spread via direct or indirect contact. Clopidogrel does not pose a risk of transmission to others and does not warrant contact precautions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed: Correct LMWHs have a more predictable anticoagulant response compared to unfractionated heparin, resulting in a more stable effect on coagulation. Because of their predictable response, routine monitoring of coagulation parameters, such as activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is typically not required with LMWH therapy, unlike with unfractionated heparin.
B. LMWHs may be given by the oral route: Incorrect. LMWHs are administered by the subcutaneous route.
C. LMWHs have a short duration of action: Incorrect. LMWHs have a longer duration of action compared to unfractionated heparin.
D. LMWHs possess greater anticoagulant activity: incorrect. LMWHs generally have less potent anticoagulant activity compared to unfractionated heparin, but their more predictable response and longer half-life make them advantageous in many clinical scenario
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