A patient has been taking heparin for three days and has developed hematuria. The most appropriate action for the nurse is to:

Insert a urinary catheter to determine the residual urine

Hold the next dose of heparin and contact the physician

Instruct the patient to drink adequate amounts of fluid

Administer an additional dose of heparin subcutaneously

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Insert a urinary catheter to determine the residual urine. Inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary to accurately measure urinary output and assess for signs of urinary retention. However, the presence of hematuria suggests a potential bleeding complication related to heparin therapy. While monitoring urinary output is important, inserting a urinary catheter should not be the first action taken in response to hematuria. Other interventions to address the bleeding should be prioritized.

B. Hold the next dose of heparin and contact the physician. This is the correct answer. Hematuria can be a sign of a bleeding complication, which is a known side effect of heparin therapy. Holding the next dose of heparin is appropriate to prevent further bleeding, and contacting the physician ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the patient's condition. The physician may decide to adjust the dose of heparin, temporarily discontinue it, or order further investigations to determine the cause of the hematuria.

C. Instruct the patient to drink adequate amounts of fluid. While maintaining hydration is important for overall health, instructing the patient to drink fluids would not directly address the underlying cause of hematuria, which may be related to a bleeding complication from heparin therapy. Holding the next dose of heparin and contacting the physician are more appropriate actions in response to hematuria.

D. Administer an additional dose of heparin subcutaneously. Administering additional heparin would exacerbate the bleeding risk and is contraindicated in the presence of hematuria. It is important to withhold further doses of heparin and seek medical guidance to address the bleeding complication.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Temperature of 100.8 Degrees Fahrenheit (38.2 Degrees Celsius): Fever can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication or may be a sign of infection, which could complicate the patient's condition. While a fever can be a sign of an infection, it's not a typical adverse effect for alteplase

B. Skin rash with urticaria: Skin rash and urticaria (hives) can indicate an allergic reaction to alteplase. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe and may necessitate discontinuation of the medication and administration of appropriate treatment, such as antihistamines or corticosteroids, depending on the severity of the reaction but it's less common than bleeding.

C. Wheezing with labored breathing: Wheezing and labored breathing can indicate a severe allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to alteplase but again, bleeding is a more prominent concern.

D. Bruising and epistaxis: Alteplase increases the risk of bleeding due to its thrombolytic activity. Bruising and epistaxis (nosebleeds) are common manifestations of bleeding associated with alteplase therapy. Monitoring for these signs helps detect potential bleeding complications early, allowing for prompt intervention to minimize further bleeding and manage the patient's condition appropriately.

A. LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed. B. LMWHs may be given by the oral route C. LMWHs have a short duration of action D. LMWHs possess greater anticoagulant activity

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed: Correct LMWHs have a more predictable anticoagulant response compared to unfractionated heparin, resulting in a more stable effect on coagulation. Because of their predictable response, routine monitoring of coagulation parameters, such as activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is typically not required with LMWH therapy, unlike with unfractionated heparin.

B. LMWHs may be given by the oral route: Incorrect. LMWHs are administered by the subcutaneous route.

C. LMWHs have a short duration of action: Incorrect. LMWHs have a longer duration of action compared to unfractionated heparin.

D. LMWHs possess greater anticoagulant activity: incorrect. LMWHs generally have less potent anticoagulant activity compared to unfractionated heparin, but their more predictable response and longer half-life make them advantageous in many clinical scenario

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A patient has been taking heparin for three days and has developed hematuria. The most appropriate action for the nurse is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is receiving alteplase (Activase), a thrombolytic drug. The nurse monitors the patient for which of the following possible adverse effects?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

What is the primary advantage of using low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) over heparin?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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