What is the primary advantage of using low molecular weight heparins (LMWHs) over heparin?
LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed.
LMWHs may be given by the oral route
LMWHs have a short duration of action
LMWHs possess greater anticoagulant activity
The Correct Answer is A
A. LMWHs produce a more stable effect on coagulation; thus, fewer lab tests are needed: Correct LMWHs have a more predictable anticoagulant response compared to unfractionated heparin, resulting in a more stable effect on coagulation. Because of their predictable response, routine monitoring of coagulation parameters, such as activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is typically not required with LMWH therapy, unlike with unfractionated heparin.
B. LMWHs may be given by the oral route: Incorrect. LMWHs are administered by the subcutaneous route.
C. LMWHs have a short duration of action: Incorrect. LMWHs have a longer duration of action compared to unfractionated heparin.
D. LMWHs possess greater anticoagulant activity: incorrect. LMWHs generally have less potent anticoagulant activity compared to unfractionated heparin, but their more predictable response and longer half-life make them advantageous in many clinical scenario
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "This medication will not break down clots but will make it less likely that the clot will get larger." Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. It does not directly break down existing clots but prevents the formation of new clots and the extension of existing ones. This response provides accurate information about the mechanism of action of warfarin.
B. "It will break down the clot within 8 to 12 hours of administration." This statement is incorrect. Warfarin does not have an immediate effect on existing clots. Its action is primarily preventive, reducing the risk of further clot formation and allowing the body's natural processes to gradually break down existing clots over time.
C. "It will take 7 to 10 days for the clot to break down." While the body's natural processes may start breaking down the clot within this timeframe, warfarin itself does not directly cause the dissolution of clots. This response is partially accurate in terms of the timeline for the body's natural clot resolution but does not specify that warfarin itself is not responsible for clot breakdown.
D. "You will need to be on this medication for a long time before it will break down the clot." This statement is misleading. Warfarin's role is to prevent the formation of new clots and further extension of existing ones rather than directly breaking down clots. Additionally, the duration of warfarin therapy is typically determined based on the individual's risk factors for clot formation, and it may not necessarily correlate with the time it takes for existing clots to resolve.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fish oil: While fish oil has some evidence for reducing inflammation, the evidence for its effectiveness in treating arthritis is mixed.
B. DHEA: DHEA is a hormone and there is not enough evidence to support its use for arthritis.
C. Garlic and soy: While garlic and soy have some general health benefits, there is no strong evidence they are effective for treating arthritis.
D. Chondroitin and glucosamine: These supplements are the most studied option for arthritis and some studies have shown they may provide modest pain relief, although the evidence is not conclusive.
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