A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer the medication with each meal.
Have suction equipment at the bedside.
Monitor the client for black, tarry stools.
Initiate contact precautions.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Monitor the client for black, tarry stools.
Choice A rationale:
Administering clopidogrel with each meal is not necessary. Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. The primary concern with clopidogrel is its potential to cause bleeding, so monitoring for signs of bleeding is more critical.
Choice B rationale:
Having suction equipment at the bedside is not specifically required for clients taking clopidogrel. This action is more relevant for clients at risk of airway obstruction or those undergoing procedures that might require suctioning.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the client for black, tarry stools is essential because it can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a known side effect of clopidogrel. This medication increases the risk of bleeding, so observing for signs of internal bleeding, such as melena (black, tarry stools), is crucial.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating contact precautions is not necessary for clients taking clopidogrel. Contact precautions are typically used to prevent the spread of infections, not for managing clients on antiplatelet therapy.
By understanding these rationales, the nurse can ensure the safe administration and monitoring of clopidogrel therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Crackles in lung bases Crackles in the lung bases are often indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, which can occur in conditions like heart failure. These crackles are discontinuous and sound like "fine rales.”. They can be heard during inspiration and expiration.
Choice B rationale:
Periorbital edema Periorbital edema, or swelling around the eyes, can be a sign of fluid volume overload, especially in the context of an older adult receiving IV therapy. It suggests that excess fluid is accumulating in the body.
Choice D rationale:
Bounding radial pulse A bounding radial pulse is a sign of increased stroke volume and can occur when the heart is working harder to pump the increased blood volume associated with fluid overload.
Choice C rationale:
Swelling at the IV site Swelling at the IV site can be a local reaction and may not necessarily indicate fluid volume overload unless it is associated with other systemic signs.
Choice E rationale:
Flat neck veins when supine Flat neck veins when the client is supine are not typically associated with fluid volume overload. In fact, flat neck veins are more characteristic of hypovolemia. Now, let's address the final question.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypertension is not typically associated with low calcium levels. Hypertension is more commonly linked to issues with blood pressure regulation and not calcium levels.
Choice B rationale:
Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) is not a direct symptom of low calcium levels. Low calcium can lead to muscle cramps and tetany, but not sweating.
Choice C rationale:
Muscle tetany is a common manifestation of low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). It results from increased neuromuscular excitability, causing muscle spasms and contractions. A calcium level of 7 mg/dL is below the normal range, and this client is at risk for muscle tetany.
Choice D rationale:
Increased thirst is not a typical symptom of low calcium levels. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are primarily related to neuromuscular and cardiovascular changes, such as muscle tetany and cardiac arrhythmias.
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