A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client.

Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Use a 1-inch needle to inject the medication.

Use a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication.

Massage the injection site after administration of the medication.

Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

“Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest.” When administering heparin subcutaneously, it is appropriate to inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest 1.
Choice A is not correct because a 1-inch needle may be too long for subcutaneous injection.
A shorter needle, such as a 3/8 to 5/8 inch needle, is typically used for subcutaneous injections.
Choice B is not correct because a 22-gauge needle may be too large for subcutaneous injection.
A smaller gauge needle, such as a 25- or 27-gauge needle, is typically used for subcutaneous injections.
Choice C is not correct because massaging the injection site after administering heparin can increase the risk of bruising and should be avoided.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse should administer 2 tablets of lorazepam 1 mg to give a total dose of 2 mg.
This is calculated by dividing the desired dose (2 mg) by the available dose (1 mg/tablet) to get the number of tablets needed: 2 mg / (1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets.
Choice A, 1 tablet, is not the correct answer because it would only provide a total dose of 1 mg.
Choice C, 3 tablets, is not the correct answer because it would provide a total dose of 3 mg.
Choice D, 4 tablets, is not the correct answer because it would provide a total dose of 4 mg.

Correct Answer is ["100"]

Explanation

The nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver 100 gtt/min.

To calculate the flow rate in gtt/min, you can use the formula: (Volume to be infused (mL) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)) ÷ Time (min) = Flow rate (gtt/min).

Plugging in the values from the question: (100 mL x 60 gtt/mL) ÷ 60 min = 100 gtt/min.

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A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 2 mg PO. Available in lorazepam 1 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water IV to infuse at 100 mL/60 min. The drop factor on the manual IV tubing is 60 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the IV flow rate to deliver how many gtt/min. (Round to the nearest whole number.).

Correct Answer is ["100"]

Explanation

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A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client.

Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?