A nurse is caring for a client recently diagnosed with panic disorder. The provider has prescribed pharmacologic treatment. Which of the following medications are commonly used in the treatment of panic disorder? (Select all that apply.)
Propranolol
Clonidine
Alprazolam
Buspirone
Clonazepam
Correct Answer : C,E
Choice A reason: Propranolol is a beta-blocker primarily used for performance-related anxiety and physical symptoms like tremors or palpitations. It is not considered first-line or standard treatment for panic disorder.
Choice B reason: Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used more often for hypertension, withdrawal syndromes, and sometimes ADHD. It is not a recommended pharmacologic option for panic disorder.
Choice C reason: Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, is effective for acute management of panic attacks by rapidly reducing anxiety. However, it is generally used short-term due to risks of tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal.
Choice D reason: Buspirone is an anxiolytic used mainly for generalized anxiety disorder. It lacks efficacy in panic disorder and is not typically prescribed for it.
Choice E reason: Clonazepam, another benzodiazepine, is often used to manage panic disorder due to its longer half-life compared to alprazolam, making it effective in reducing frequency and severity of panic attacks.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Haloperidol may be used for severe agitation or hallucinations but is not the first-line treatment for delirium tremens because it does not address the underlying withdrawal process.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the drug of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal and delirium tremens. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, and manages autonomic instability.
Choice C reason: Naltrexone is used to reduce alcohol cravings and prevent relapse but is not appropriate for acute withdrawal or delirium tremens.
Choice D reason: Disulfiram is an aversive therapy medication used to discourage alcohol consumption by causing unpleasant effects if alcohol is ingested. It is contraindicated during withdrawal due to safety risks.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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