A 32-year-old male client with a history of arrests and substance use is admitted to the psychiatric unit for court-mandated evaluation. During the assessment, he is superficially charming, manipulates staff to get privileges, violates unit rules without remorse, and blames others for his behavior. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for managing this client?
Provide consistent structured rules and set firm limits on behavior.
Use sympathy and reassurance to reduce the client’s resistance to authority.
Allow the client flexibility in decision-making to encourage independence and self-direction.
Develop a close, personal rapport with the client to build trust and encourage emotional expression.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Consistent rules and firm boundaries are essential when working with individuals who display antisocial traits. Structure minimizes opportunities for manipulation and helps maintain safety and fairness on the unit.
Choice B reason: Offering sympathy and reassurance may reinforce manipulative behavior and undermine professional boundaries. It does not address the core issue of rule violation and lack of accountability.
Choice C reason: Allowing too much flexibility may increase opportunities for the client to exploit staff and disregard rules. This approach is counterproductive when dealing with manipulative behaviors.
Choice D reason: Developing a close, personal rapport risks blurring professional boundaries. Clients with these traits may exploit such relationships to gain privileges, which can disrupt treatment and unit structure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Avoiding judgmental remarks supports therapeutic rapport and prevents worsening anxiety or defensiveness.
Choice B reason: Teaching coping strategies like thought stopping helps the client begin to manage obsessive behaviors more effectively.
Choice C reason: Identifying triggers for obsessive behaviors allows the nurse and client to develop strategies for prevention and management.
Choice D reason: Removing magazines to prevent counting avoids addressing the underlying compulsion and may increase anxiety. This approach is not appropriate in the initial care plan.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Haloperidol may be used for severe agitation or hallucinations but is not the first-line treatment for delirium tremens because it does not address the underlying withdrawal process.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the drug of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal and delirium tremens. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, and manages autonomic instability.
Choice C reason: Naltrexone is used to reduce alcohol cravings and prevent relapse but is not appropriate for acute withdrawal or delirium tremens.
Choice D reason: Disulfiram is an aversive therapy medication used to discourage alcohol consumption by causing unpleasant effects if alcohol is ingested. It is contraindicated during withdrawal due to safety risks.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
