A 25-year-old client is hospitalized for severe anxiety. During the assessment, the nurse notices the client clutches a childhood stuffed animal and speaks in a childlike voice when discussing stressful life events. Which defense mechanism is the client most likely using?

Displacement.

Regression.

Sublimation.

Repression.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Displacement involves transferring feelings from one object or person to another safer target, which is not occurring here.

Choice B reason: Returning to earlier developmental behaviors, such as holding a childhood toy and speaking like a child during stress, is a clear example of regression.

Choice C reason: Sublimation is channeling unacceptable impulses into constructive activities, which is not shown in this scenario.

Choice D reason: Repression involves unconsciously blocking distressing thoughts or feelings, but in this case the client is acting out stress through childlike behavior.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Separation anxiety disorder involves excessive distress when separated from caregivers, but the key feature here is lack of speech in specific settings.

Choice B reason: Agoraphobia is the fear of being in situations where escape may be difficult, not selective inability to speak.

Choice C reason: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive worry in many areas of life, not persistent mutism in social contexts.

Choice D reason: Selective mutism is an anxiety disorder where a child consistently fails to speak in certain settings, like school, despite being able to speak in others, making this the correct diagnosis.

A. They enhance dopamine transmission to improve cognitive function in schizophrenia. B. They block dopamine and serotonin receptors, reducing extrapyramidal side effects. C. They primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, leading to high rates of extrapyramidal symptoms. D. They selectively block only serotonin receptors, improving mood without affecting dopamine.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.

Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.

Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.

Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.

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A 25-year-old client is hospitalized for severe anxiety. During the assessment, the nurse notices the client clutches a childhood stuffed animal and speaks in a childlike voice when discussing stressful life events. Which defense mechanism is the client most likely using?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a child whose guardians report that the child is consistently unable to speak during class and other social situations. The nurse should identify that the child is experiencing which of the following anxiety disorders?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is educating a client starting on risperidone. Which of the following statements best explains the unique pharmacological action of second-generation antipsychotics compared to first-generation antipsychotics?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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