A recently widowed client becomes tearful at a routine clinic visit and states, "I just can’t get over my spouse’s death." Which of the following by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
"A friend of mine passed away recently. I know how hard losses can be."
"I see that you are distressed. What are your thoughts about attending a grief support group?"
"I see that you’re upset. I will step out while you process these feelings."
"It may take a while, but coming to terms with loss gets easier with time."
"This is a difficult time. Tell me about how you have been coping."
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Choice A reason: Sharing personal loss shifts the focus away from the patient, which is not therapeutic. Self-disclosure in this way can hinder supportive communication.
Choice B reason: Suggesting a grief support group acknowledges the patient’s feelings while offering a constructive coping resource. It validates distress and provides support.
Choice C reason: Leaving the patient when they are emotionally vulnerable conveys abandonment instead of support, which is not therapeutic.
Choice D reason: Normalizing grief as a process that takes time offers reassurance without minimizing the client’s emotions. It helps the patient understand that healing is gradual.
Choice E reason: Encouraging the patient to share coping strategies promotes expression of feelings and helps the nurse assess adaptive versus maladaptive coping mechanisms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Displacement involves transferring feelings from one object or person to another safer target, which is not occurring here.
Choice B reason: Returning to earlier developmental behaviors, such as holding a childhood toy and speaking like a child during stress, is a clear example of regression.
Choice C reason: Sublimation is channeling unacceptable impulses into constructive activities, which is not shown in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Repression involves unconsciously blocking distressing thoughts or feelings, but in this case the client is acting out stress through childlike behavior.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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