A recently widowed client becomes tearful at a routine clinic visit and states, "I just can’t get over my spouse’s death." Which of the following by the nurse are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
"A friend of mine passed away recently. I know how hard losses can be."
"I see that you are distressed. What are your thoughts about attending a grief support group?"
"I see that you’re upset. I will step out while you process these feelings."
"It may take a while, but coming to terms with loss gets easier with time."
"This is a difficult time. Tell me about how you have been coping."
Correct Answer : B,D,E
Choice A reason: Sharing personal loss shifts the focus away from the patient, which is not therapeutic. Self-disclosure in this way can hinder supportive communication.
Choice B reason: Suggesting a grief support group acknowledges the patient’s feelings while offering a constructive coping resource. It validates distress and provides support.
Choice C reason: Leaving the patient when they are emotionally vulnerable conveys abandonment instead of support, which is not therapeutic.
Choice D reason: Normalizing grief as a process that takes time offers reassurance without minimizing the client’s emotions. It helps the patient understand that healing is gradual.
Choice E reason: Encouraging the patient to share coping strategies promotes expression of feelings and helps the nurse assess adaptive versus maladaptive coping mechanisms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Avoiding judgmental remarks supports therapeutic rapport and prevents worsening anxiety or defensiveness.
Choice B reason: Teaching coping strategies like thought stopping helps the client begin to manage obsessive behaviors more effectively.
Choice C reason: Identifying triggers for obsessive behaviors allows the nurse and client to develop strategies for prevention and management.
Choice D reason: Removing magazines to prevent counting avoids addressing the underlying compulsion and may increase anxiety. This approach is not appropriate in the initial care plan.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This presentation is consistent with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics characterized by severe muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Immediate discontinuation of the drug and emergency treatment are required.
Choice B reason: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics. While distressing and requiring management, it is not life-threatening compared to NMS.
Choice C reason: A flat affect and reduced speech are negative symptoms of schizophrenia and may persist despite treatment. These are concerning for quality of life but do not require urgent medical intervention.
Choice D reason: Mild weight gain is a known side effect of many antipsychotics. It should be monitored and managed with lifestyle modifications but does not represent an immediate threat.
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