A nurse practicing Peplau’s Relations Theory is working with a newly admitted client who is withdrawn and reluctant to engage. According to Peplau’s working model, which nurse action best explains the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship?
Focusing solely on medication administration to stabilize symptoms before building rapport.
Encouraging the client to express feelings freely without providing guidance.
Maintaining professional distance to avoid fostering dependency.
Establishing trust through consistent, honest communication and clarifying the client’s expectations.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Focusing only on medications neglects the interpersonal development central to Peplau’s model. The orientation phase emphasizes relationship building, not task-centered care.
Choice B reason: Allowing expression without structure or guidance does not fulfill the orientation phase, which requires the nurse to actively build trust and clarify roles.
Choice C reason: Excessive distance prevents rapport, which is essential in the orientation phase where the foundation for a therapeutic relationship must be established.
Choice D reason: Establishing trust, being consistent, and clarifying client expectations define the orientation phase of Peplau’s theory. This phase sets the groundwork for collaboration and progress in treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Forcibly removing the client escalates anxiety and can increase resistance. This action does not support therapeutic management of OCD.
Choice B reason: Providing a clear, respectful, and time-limited reminder supports structure and helps the client redirect behavior without confrontation. It balances therapeutic boundaries with empathy.
Choice C reason: Dismissing the client’s concern as unreasonable invalidates their experience, increasing defensiveness and mistrust. This does not support treatment goals.
Choice D reason: Avoiding the problem by redirecting the roommate fails to address the client’s compulsive behavior and disrupts the care environment.
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