A 52-year-old male with a long history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital and begins showing signs of Delirium Tremens, including agitation, tremors, tachycardia, and hallucinations. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to manage these symptoms?
Haloperidol
Lorazepam
Naltrexone
Disulfiram
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Haloperidol may be used for severe agitation or hallucinations but is not the first-line treatment for delirium tremens because it does not address the underlying withdrawal process.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is the drug of choice for managing alcohol withdrawal and delirium tremens. It reduces agitation, prevents seizures, and manages autonomic instability.
Choice C reason: Naltrexone is used to reduce alcohol cravings and prevent relapse but is not appropriate for acute withdrawal or delirium tremens.
Choice D reason: Disulfiram is an aversive therapy medication used to discourage alcohol consumption by causing unpleasant effects if alcohol is ingested. It is contraindicated during withdrawal due to safety risks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring after meals reduces opportunities for purging behaviors such as vomiting or excessive exercise, which are common in bulimia nervosa.
Choice B reason: Electrolyte disturbances, particularly hypokalemia, are common due to vomiting and laxative abuse. Ongoing assessment is critical for patient safety.
Choice C reason: Continuing laxative use perpetuates the disorder and poses health risks such as dehydration and bowel damage. This is contraindicated.
Choice D reason: Food diaries are sometimes used in therapy to help patients increase awareness of eating patterns. Outright prohibition may remove a useful therapeutic tool unless misused.
Choice E reason: Patients with bulimia may attempt to conceal evidence of binge eating. Being attentive to hidden or discarded wrappers is an important part of monitoring.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: When anxiety is severe, the client cannot focus or process complex discussions. Asking them to explore worries may overwhelm them further.
Choice B reason: Providing extensive information is inappropriate in crisis moments because the client’s concentration and comprehension are impaired.
Choice C reason: Clear, calm, and brief communication helps reduce overstimulation, provides structure, and reassures the client during high anxiety. This is the most therapeutic choice.
Choice D reason: Rapid statements can escalate the client’s sense of being overwhelmed, increasing anxiety rather than calming it.
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