A client recently diagnosed with cancer continues to miss follow-up appointments and states, "The doctors must have made a mistake—there’s no way I’m that sick." According to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, which defense mechanism is the client most likely using?
Rationalization
Regression
Denial
Projection
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Rationalization involves creating logical explanations to justify behavior or feelings. In this case, the client is not justifying but outright rejecting the diagnosis, so this does not apply.
Choice B reason: Regression occurs when an individual reverts to earlier developmental behaviors, such as childish actions, to cope with stress. The client is not reverting to earlier behaviors but refusing to accept reality.
Choice C reason: Denial is the refusal to accept reality or facts, blocking external events from conscious awareness. The client’s insistence that the diagnosis is a mistake demonstrates denial, making this the correct defense mechanism.
Choice D reason: Projection occurs when a person attributes their unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else. The client is not attributing their illness to others but rejecting its existence altogether.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: SSRIs are antidepressants used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. They do not address extrapyramidal side effects like acute dystonia, so they would not be useful in this case.
Choice B reason: Beta-blockers are primarily used for cardiovascular conditions and akathisia (a sense of restlessness), but they are not the treatment of choice for acute dystonia.
Choice C reason: Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine with strong anticholinergic properties, is effective in treating acute dystonia by restoring the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the basal ganglia. This makes it the correct choice for managing the client’s symptoms.
Choice D reason: Benzodiazepines may help with agitation or anxiety, but they are not first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions caused by antipsychotic medications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, simply stating this without providing management strategies does not support the client’s health.
Choice B reason: Stopping the medication abruptly without medical guidance risks relapse of psychotic symptoms and is unsafe.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics have their own significant risks, including extrapyramidal side effects, and are not automatically safer. Medication changes should only be considered if lifestyle modifications fail and under provider supervision.
Choice D reason: Encouraging healthy lifestyle changes like diet modification and exercise helps manage weight gain while maintaining medication adherence, making this the most appropriate intervention.
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