A client charged with assault pleads not guilty by reason of insanity under the Durham Rule. Which statement best reflects the criteria used in this legal standard?
The client’s criminal act is excused due to a mental defect.
The client’s behavior was driven by irresistible impulses beyond their control.
The client must prove they were unable to appreciate the wrongfulness of their act.
The client was influenced by temporary intoxication or delirium.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: The Durham Rule states that a defendant is not criminally responsible if their unlawful act was the result of a mental illness or defect. This directly matches the legal standard, making it the correct choice.
Choice B reason: The “irresistible impulse” test applies when a person cannot control their actions despite knowing right from wrong. This is not the Durham Rule’s standard.
Choice C reason: This statement describes the M’Naghten Rule, which requires proof that the defendant did not understand the wrongfulness of their act. It does not represent the Durham Rule.
Choice D reason: Temporary intoxication or delirium does not meet the criteria under the Durham Rule. Voluntary intoxication in particular is not considered a valid legal defense.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Sedative medications may be used in severe cases, but immediate nursing care focuses on nonpharmacologic interventions to ensure safety and reduce stimulation. Medication is not the first-line action.
Choice B reason: Providing a calm environment with reduced external stimuli while encouraging expression of feelings helps the client regain control and decreases anxiety during a panic episode. This is the most appropriate nursing intervention.
Choice C reason: Detailed problem-solving requires higher-level cognitive functioning, which is impaired during a panic attack. Attempting this intervention may increase the client’s distress.
Choice D reason: Allowing expression without guidance offers no therapeutic support and may leave the client overwhelmed by panic symptoms, prolonging the episode.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: SSRIs are antidepressants used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. They do not address extrapyramidal side effects like acute dystonia, so they would not be useful in this case.
Choice B reason: Beta-blockers are primarily used for cardiovascular conditions and akathisia (a sense of restlessness), but they are not the treatment of choice for acute dystonia.
Choice C reason: Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine with strong anticholinergic properties, is effective in treating acute dystonia by restoring the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the basal ganglia. This makes it the correct choice for managing the client’s symptoms.
Choice D reason: Benzodiazepines may help with agitation or anxiety, but they are not first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions caused by antipsychotic medications.
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