A nurse is educating a client starting on risperidone. Which of the following statements best explains the unique pharmacological action of second-generation antipsychotics compared to first-generation antipsychotics?
They enhance dopamine transmission to improve cognitive function in schizophrenia.
They block dopamine and serotonin receptors, reducing extrapyramidal side effects.
They primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, leading to high rates of extrapyramidal symptoms.
They selectively block only serotonin receptors, improving mood without affecting dopamine.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The unconscious mind, according to psychoanalytic theory, is where repressed emotions, memories, and desires are stored. These hidden influences affect behavior and mental health without the individual’s conscious awareness.
Choice B reason: Active and current awareness of memories and thoughts describes the conscious mind, not the unconscious.
Choice C reason: Immediate awareness of sensory input and decision-making refers to the conscious and preconscious processes, not the unconscious.
Choice D reason: Voluntary motor control and coordination involve the motor cortex and cerebellum, unrelated to psychoanalytic concepts of the unconscious.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The nurse’s role is to advocate for the client by collaborating with the healthcare team and ensuring the guardian respects the client’s best interests and personal preferences. This balances autonomy and protection.
Choice B reason: While explaining changes in decision-making is part of education, focusing only on the loss of control without emphasizing advocacy may increase fear and distress.
Choice C reason: Avoiding communication violates therapeutic principles and disregards the client’s dignity. Even if incapable of informed consent, clients should remain included in discussions.
Choice D reason: Treatment cannot proceed without proper consent unless there is an emergency. Acting before guardianship is finalized would violate legal and ethical standards.
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