A nurse is educating a client starting on risperidone. Which of the following statements best explains the unique pharmacological action of second-generation antipsychotics compared to first-generation antipsychotics?
They enhance dopamine transmission to improve cognitive function in schizophrenia.
They block dopamine and serotonin receptors, reducing extrapyramidal side effects.
They primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, leading to high rates of extrapyramidal symptoms.
They selectively block only serotonin receptors, improving mood without affecting dopamine.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Enhancing dopamine transmission is not the mechanism of antipsychotics; excessive dopamine is implicated in schizophrenia’s positive symptoms, so reducing—not enhancing—dopamine activity is key.
Choice B reason: Blocking both dopamine and serotonin receptors is characteristic of second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics. This dual action reduces extrapyramidal side effects while still targeting positive and negative symptoms.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics primarily block dopamine D2 receptors, which increases the risk for extrapyramidal side effects such as dystonia and parkinsonism.
Choice D reason: Selective serotonin receptor blockade is not the defining mechanism of second-generation antipsychotics. These medications act on both dopamine and serotonin systems.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, simply stating this without providing management strategies does not support the client’s health.
Choice B reason: Stopping the medication abruptly without medical guidance risks relapse of psychotic symptoms and is unsafe.
Choice C reason: First-generation antipsychotics have their own significant risks, including extrapyramidal side effects, and are not automatically safer. Medication changes should only be considered if lifestyle modifications fail and under provider supervision.
Choice D reason: Encouraging healthy lifestyle changes like diet modification and exercise helps manage weight gain while maintaining medication adherence, making this the most appropriate intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Long-term memory and emotional responses are primarily associated with the limbic system, particularly the hippocampus and amygdala, not the hypothalamus.
Choice B reason: Voluntary muscle control and reflexes are coordinated by the motor cortex and spinal cord, not the hypothalamus.
Choice C reason: Processing sensory input and initiating motor responses are functions of the thalamus and cerebral cortex. The hypothalamus is not directly responsible for this role.
Choice D reason: The hypothalamus regulates homeostasis, including body temperature, thirst, fluid balance, circadian rhythms, and hormone release. A tumor compressing this area explains the patient’s symptoms.
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