A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client?
Are you taking a multivitamin?
Have you had a recent influenza infection?
Have you traveled overseas recently?
Do you have a history of chronic alcohol abuse?
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Asking about multivitamin intake is not directly relevant to GBS, as the syndrome is not known to be caused by vitamin deficiencies or related to nutritional status.
Choice B reason: A recent influenza infection is relevant because GBS is often preceded by an infection, such as a respiratory or gastrointestinal viral infection. The immune system's response to this infection may mistakenly attack peripheral nerves, leading to GBS.
Choice C reason: While travel history is important in assessing exposure to infectious diseases, it is less specific than asking about recent infections. GBS can occur after exposure to certain viruses or bacteria, which can be contracted without overseas travel.
Choice D reason: Chronic alcohol abuse is a risk factor for various neurological conditions, but it is not a typical precursor to GBS. The syndrome is more commonly associated with immune responses to infections.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis would be indicated by an elevated pH and HCO3, but the PaCO2 would typically be higher due to compensatory hypoventilation.
Choice B reason: This is the correct choice. The elevated pH and low PaCO2 indicate respiratory alkalosis, likely due to hyperventilation. The normal HCO3 suggests that there has been no renal compensation, hence 'uncompensated'.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect because, for metabolic alkalosis to be uncompensated, the PaCO2 would typically be normal or high, not low.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect. Respiratory acidosis would be indicated by a low pH and high PaCO2, which is not the case here.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ménière's disease typically presents with vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, not sudden resolution of ear pain with otorrhea.
Choice B reason: Mastoiditis may cause ear pain and drainage, but it is usually accompanied by fever and tenderness over the mastoid bone, not sudden pain resolution.
Choice C reason: A perforated tympanic membrane can lead to the sudden resolution of ear pain followed by drainage, as the pressure causing the pain is relieved when the eardrum ruptures.
Choice D reason: Acoustic neuroma typically presents with progressive hearing loss and tinnitus, not ear pain or otorrhea.
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