A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

Dark hair

Female gender

History of chronic skin irritation

Age 19 to 30 years

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.

Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.

Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.

Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Adjusting the rate of the bladder irrigant may be necessary if there is an issue with the flow or the amount of fluid, but it is not the first action to take. The nurse must first ensure that there is no mechanical obstruction causing the lack of drainage.

Choice B reason:
Irrigating the catheter could be the next step if checking the tubing does not resolve the issue. However, it is not the first action to take because if there is a kink in the tubing, irrigation will not be effective and could potentially cause harm.

Choice C reason:
The first action the nurse should take is to check the tubing for kinks because this is a common and easily correctable cause of obstruction in catheter drainage. If the tubing is kinked, straightening it may allow urine to drain properly.

Choice D reason:
Notifying the provider is important if the other interventions do not resolve the issue. However, it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first perform basic troubleshooting steps to identify and correct any simple mechanical issues with the catheter system.

A. Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder. B. Alteration in the contour of the joint. C. Positive Tinel's sign. D. Negative drop arm test.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Difficulty with abduction of the arm at the shoulder is a common finding in clients with a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and tendons that stabilize the shoulder joint and facilitate its movement. When these muscles or tendons are injured, movements such as lifting the arm away from the body (abduction) can become painful and difficult.

Choice B reason:
Alteration in the contour of the joint is not typically associated with a rotator cuff injury. This finding is more indicative of conditions that cause changes in the bone structure, such as arthritis or dislocation.

Choice C reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, particularly in conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome. It is not a test used to assess rotator cuff injuries.

Choice D reason:
A negative drop arm test would suggest that the client does not have a rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by having the client lift the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the client can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the client cannot control the descent of the arm, would indicate a rotator cuff injury.

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A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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