A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

Dark hair

Female gender

History of chronic skin irritation

Age 19 to 30 years

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.

Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.

Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.

Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which can lead to its enlargement. While hyperplasia can be a response to a stimulus and is not necessarily precancerous, it does not describe the abnormal changes in the shape, size, and organization of mature cells.

Choice B reason:
Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one differentiated cell type is replaced by another cell type. This process can be a response to chronic irritation and inflammation, and while it may predispose cells to cancerous changes, it is not in itself a precancerous condition.

Choice C reason:
The term 'malignant' refers to cancerous cells that have the ability to invade and destroy nearby tissue and spread to other parts of the body. The description of the cells as 'moderately abnormal' does not indicate that the cells are malignant but rather that they are showing signs of potentially precancerous changes.

Choice D reason:
Dysplasia refers to the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, uniformity, arrangement, and structure, particularly when such changes are strongly suggestive of developing neoplasia, or new, abnormal growth. In the context of a Pap smear, dysplasia is indicative of precancerous changes and is the term used to describe the abnormal development of cells on the cervix.

A. Kernig's sign B. Brudzinski's sign C. Chvostek's sign D. Babinski's sign

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis and is not related to the symptoms of tingling sensations that can occur after a subtotal thyroidectomy. This sign is elicited by extending the client's leg at the knee while the hip is flexed, which would not be relevant in this case.

Choice B reason:

Brudzinski's sign is another indicator of meningitis and involves involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when attempting to flex the client's neck. Similar to Kernig's sign, it is not pertinent to the postoperative symptoms of a subtotal thyroidectomy.

Choice C reason:

Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of existing neuromuscular irritability seen in hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroid surgery due to accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands. Tapping on the facial nerve triggers twitching of the facial muscles, which correlates with the tingling sensations reported by the client.

Choice D reason:

Babinski's sign is used to assess neurological function, particularly of the central nervous system, and is not related to the symptoms of hypocalcemia. It involves stroking the sole of the foot to observe the toes' movements, which would not provide information about the tingling sensations the client is experiencing.

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A nurse is assessing a client at a dermatology clinic. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for developing malignant melanoma?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client's most recent Pap smear that indicates moderately abnormal cervical cells were present. Based on the description of the cells, which of the following changes of precancerous cell growth to the client's cervix should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. The client reports a tingling sensation in the hands, the soles of the feet, and around the lips. For which of the following findings should the nurse assess the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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