A nurse in a provider's office is collecting baseline preoperative data from a 5-month-old infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following locations should the nurse palpate to check for the presence of the infant's femoral pulse? (You will find hot spots to select in the artwork below. Select only the hot spot that corresponds to your answer).
The Correct Answer is "{\"xRanges\":[111.828125,122.828125],\"yRanges\":[106.5,117.5]}"
A: Location A is near the infant’s foot, specifically around the ankle. This area is where the posterior tibial or dorsalis pedis pulse would be palpated, not the femoral pulse. These pulses are important for assessing peripheral circulation but are not the primary site for evaluating coarctation of the aorta, which requires checking central pulses like the femoral.
B: Location B is at the upper inner thigh, near the groin, where the femoral artery passes close to the skin surface. This is the correct site for palpating the femoral pulse in an infant. In conditions like coarctation of the aorta, comparing the strength of the brachial and femoral pulses is crucial to detect differences in blood flow between the upper and lower body.
C: Location C is on the upper arm, near the shoulder area, which corresponds to the location for checking the brachial pulse. The brachial pulse is commonly used in infants to assess heart rate, especially during resuscitation efforts. However, it is not the site for assessing femoral pulse strength, which is needed when evaluating for coarctation of the aorta.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ask the client to identify what made them upset: The first action should be to assess and de-escalate the situation using therapeutic communication. Asking the client to verbalize their feelings can help reduce agitation, promote self-awareness, and prevent escalation.
B. Assist the client with understanding their needs: Helping the client understand their needs is important but comes after first addressing and calming their immediate emotional agitation through assessment and supportive conversation.
C. Place the client in seclusion: Seclusion is a last-resort intervention when the client poses a danger to themselves or others and less restrictive measures have failed. It should not be the first action without attempting de-escalation techniques.
D. Administer lorazepam IM: Administering medication is appropriate if non-pharmacological interventions fail. However, medication should not be the first response before attempting verbal de-escalation strategies in an agitated client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Handling cat feces: Toxoplasmosis is most commonly transmitted through exposure to Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite found in cat feces. Handling contaminated litter, soil, or sand without proper hygiene can lead to infection, making this the correct response.
B. Drinking contaminated water: While contaminated water can transmit various infections, toxoplasmosis is primarily associated with exposure to cat feces or undercooked meat, not typically with drinking water.
C. Eating shellfish: Eating shellfish can expose individuals to other types of infections, such as hepatitis A or certain bacterial infections, but it is not a known source of toxoplasmosis.
D. Touching body fluids: Toxoplasmosis is not spread through casual contact with body fluids like saliva, blood, or urine. It is mainly transmitted through ingestion of the parasite from contaminated sources.
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