A nurse in a pediatric clinic is caring for a child who has iron deficiency anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide the parents regarding the administration of this medication?
Iron (Ferrous Sulfate) may turn stools tarry green.
Administer at bedtime.
Give with a 240 mL (8 oz) glass of milk.
Administer at mealtimes.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: This instruction is correct, as iron supplements can cause a change in the color and consistency of stools, making them dark, green, or black. This is not a sign of bleeding or infection, but a normal side effect of iron therapy. The parents should be informed of this possibility and reassured that it is harmless.
Choice B: This instruction is incorrect, as iron supplements should not be administered at bedtime, but rather one hour before or two hours after meals. This is because iron absorption is reduced by food, especially dairy products, antacids, or calcium supplements. The parents should be instructed to give the medication on an empty stomach or with a small amount of food if it causes nausea.
Choice C: This instruction is incorrect, as iron supplements should not be given with milk, as milk contains calcium, which can interfere with iron absorption and reduce its effectiveness. The parents should be instructed to avoid giving milk or other dairy products within two hours of the medication.
Choice D: This instruction is incorrect, as iron supplements should not be administered at mealtimes, but rather one hour before or two hours after meals. This is because iron absorption is reduced by food, especially dairy products, antacids, or calcium supplements. The parents should be instructed to give the medication on an empty stomach or with a small amount of food if it causes nausea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because a 1-year-old toddler who has roseola and a temperature of 39° C (102.2° F) is not the most urgent case to assess. Roseola is a viral infection that causes a rash on the trunk and limbs, followed by a high fever that lasts for several days. It usually affects infants and young children and is self-limiting.
The fever can be managed by giving antipyretics such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, and by providing fluids and comfort measures. The fever does not indicate any serious complication or threat to life.
Choice B reason: This choice is incorrect because a 4-year-old child who has asthma and an O2 sat of 97% is not the most urgent case to assess. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways, leading to wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, or shortness of breath. It may be triggered by allergens, irritants, exercise, or infections. The O2 sat is a measure of oxygen saturation in the blood, which indicates how well oxygen is delivered to the tissues. A normal O2 sat range is 95% to 100%, so an O2 sat of 97% indicates that the child has adequate oxygenation and is not in respiratory distress.
Choice C reason: This choice is correct because a 10-year-old child who has sickle cell anemia and reports severe chest pain is the most urgent case to assess. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes the red blood cells to become sickle-shaped and clump together, blocking the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues. It may cause severe pain in the chest, abdomen, joints, or bones, as well as symptoms such as pallor, jaundice, fatigue, or shortness of breath. Severe chest pain may indicate acute chest syndrome, which is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell anemia that involves infection or infarction of the lungs. It may cause fever, cough, hypoxia, or respiratory failure. Therefore, assessing and treating this child is a priority to prevent further damage and death.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect because a 7-year-old child who has diabetes insipidus and a urine specific gravity of 1.016 is not the most urgent case to assess. Diabetes insipidus is a rare disorder that affects the balance of fluids in the body. It causes the kidneys to produce large amounts of dilute urine, leading to polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, or electrolyte imbalance. It may be caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or a resistance to its action. The urine specific gravity is a measure of urine concentration, which indicates how well the kidneys are functioning. A normal urine specific gravity range is 1.005 to 1.030, so a urine specific gravity of 1.016 indicates that the child has normal urine concentration and is not dehydrated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This choice is incorrect because taking glyburide with breakfast is not recommended for an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Glyburide is an oral hypoglycemic medication that lowers blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. It may be used for clients who have type 2 diabetes mellitus, but it does not work for clients who have type 1 diabetes mellitus or DKA.
Choice B reason: This choice is correct because obtaining an influenza vaccine annually is recommended for an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The influenza vaccine is a vaccine that protects against influenza, a viral infection that affects the respiratory system. It may prevent or reduce the severity of influenza and its complications, such as pneumonia or sepsis. It is recommended for everyone who is 6 months or older, especially those who have chronic conditions such as diabetes mellitus that increase their risk of influenza-related complications.
Choice C reason: This choice is incorrect because administering glucagon for hyperglycemia is not indicated for an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Glucagon is a hormone that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogen breakdown in the liver. It may be used for clients who have hypoglycemia, which is a condition in which blood glucose levels are lower than normal (less than 70 mg/dL). It may cause symptoms such as sweating, trembling, confusion, or loss of consciousness. However, in type 1 diabetes mellitus, hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) rather than hypoglycemia is more likely to occur due to insulin deficiency or resistance.
Choice D reason: This choice is incorrect because injecting insulin in the deltoid muscle is not an optimal method for an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Insulin is a hormone that lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating glucose uptake into the cells. It may be administered by injection or infusion, and it may vary in onset, peak, and duration of action. The preferred sites for insulin injection are the abdomen, the thighs, the buttocks, or the upper arms, as they have more subcutaneous fat and less muscle tissue. Injecting insulin into the deltoid muscle may cause faster absorption and shorter duration of action, which can affect blood glucose control and increase the risk of hypoglycemia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.