A nurse in a critical care unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
Prone
SemiFowler's
Sims
On the nonoperative side
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: d. On the nonoperative side
Choice A: Prone
Reason: Placing a patient in the prone position (lying face down) after a pneumonectomy is generally not recommended. This position can compromise respiratory function by restricting chest expansion and increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Additionally, it can place undue pressure on the surgical site, potentially leading to complications such as impaired wound healing or increased pain.
Choice B: Semi-Fowler’s
Reason: The Semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees) is often used to promote lung expansion and reduce the risk of aspiration. While it can be beneficial for general postoperative care, it is not the optimal position for a patient who has undergone a pneumonectomy. This position does not specifically address the need to prevent fluid accumulation in the remaining lung.
Choice C: Sims
Reason: The Sims position (lying on the side with one leg bent) is typically used for procedures such as enemas or to facilitate drainage of oral secretions. It is not suitable for a postoperative pneumonectomy patient because it does not provide the necessary support to the remaining lung and can increase the risk of fluid shifting to the nonoperative side.
Choice D: On the nonoperative side
Reason: Placing the patient on the nonoperative side is the correct position. This position helps to prevent fluid from accumulating in the remaining lung and reduces the risk of complications such as mediastinal shift or respiratory distress. By positioning the patient on the nonoperative side, gravity helps to keep the remaining lung expanded and functional.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Droplet precautions are not appropriate for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Droplet precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza, pertussis, or meningitis. Droplet precautions require the use of a surgical mask, eye protection, and gloves when in close contact with the client.
Choice B reason: Protective precautions are not applicable for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Protective precautions are used to protect immunocompromised clients from exposure to pathogens, such as those undergoing chemotherapy, organ transplantation, or stem cell transplantation. Protective precautions require the use of a HEPA filter, a positive pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Choice C reason: Contact precautions are not sufficient for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Contact precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by direct or indirect contact with the client or the client's environment, such as Clostridioides difficile, MRSA, or VRE. Contact precautions require the use of gloves and gowns when entering the room and the dedicated use of noncritical patientcare equipment.
Choice D reason: Airborne precautions are the correct type of isolation precautions for a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Airborne precautions are used to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that are spread by small respiratory droplets that can remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. Airborne precautions require the use of a respirator, such as an N95 mask, a negative pressure room, and a mask for the client when leaving the room.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is: a. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Choice A: Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air gets trapped under the skin, often due to a leak from the lung or chest tube. This can indicate a serious complication such as a pneumothorax or a malfunctioning chest tube, requiring immediate medical intervention. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema can lead to discomfort, respiratory distress, and further complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice B: Chest tube eyelets not visible
Reason: The eyelets of a chest tube are small holes at the end of the tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. These eyelets are typically covered by a dressing and may not be visible. This is not necessarily a cause for concern unless there are other signs of malfunction or complications.
Choice C: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Reason: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly. It does not indicate a problem unless the bubbling is in the water seal chamber, which would suggest an air leak.
Choice D: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
Reason: Tidal fluctuation, or tidaling, in the water seal chamber is a normal finding. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly, as the water level rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation. The absence of tidaling could indicate a blockage or that the lung has fully re-expanded.
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