A nurse in a critical care unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
Prone
SemiFowler's
Sims
On the nonoperative side
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: d. On the nonoperative side
Choice A: Prone
Reason: Placing a patient in the prone position (lying face down) after a pneumonectomy is generally not recommended. This position can compromise respiratory function by restricting chest expansion and increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Additionally, it can place undue pressure on the surgical site, potentially leading to complications such as impaired wound healing or increased pain.
Choice B: Semi-Fowler’s
Reason: The Semi-Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated to 30-45 degrees) is often used to promote lung expansion and reduce the risk of aspiration. While it can be beneficial for general postoperative care, it is not the optimal position for a patient who has undergone a pneumonectomy. This position does not specifically address the need to prevent fluid accumulation in the remaining lung.
Choice C: Sims
Reason: The Sims position (lying on the side with one leg bent) is typically used for procedures such as enemas or to facilitate drainage of oral secretions. It is not suitable for a postoperative pneumonectomy patient because it does not provide the necessary support to the remaining lung and can increase the risk of fluid shifting to the nonoperative side.
Choice D: On the nonoperative side
Reason: Placing the patient on the nonoperative side is the correct position. This position helps to prevent fluid from accumulating in the remaining lung and reduces the risk of complications such as mediastinal shift or respiratory distress. By positioning the patient on the nonoperative side, gravity helps to keep the remaining lung expanded and functional.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A history of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hr is not a typical manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. This could be a sign of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain that causes stroke like symptoms. A TIA is different from a hemorrhagic stroke, which is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel.
Choice B reason: Manifestations preceded by a severe headache is a common manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A ruptured cerebral aneurysm can cause sudden and intense pain in the head, often described as the worst headache of one's life. This is due to the increased pressure and irritation of the brain tissue and nerves by the blood leaking from the aneurysm.
Choice C reason: A gradual onset of several hours is not a usual manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment, as the bleeding can cause rapid damage to the brain and increase the risk of death or disability. The symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke usually develop suddenly and worsen quickly.
Choice D reason: Maintaining consciousness is not a likely manifestation of a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke can cause loss of consciousness, confusion, drowsiness, or coma due to the reduced blood flow and oxygen to the brain. The level of consciousness can also be affected by the location and extent of the bleeding, as well as the presence of complications such as hydrocephalus or vasospasm.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Flexing the upper and extending the lower extremities in response to the painful stimulus is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of decorticate posturing, which indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or the internal capsule. Decorticate posturing is a type of abnormal flexion that involves the abduction of the arms, internal rotation of the shoulders, flexion of the wrists, and extension of the legs.
Choice B reason: Pushing the painful stimulus away is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of normal motor function, which indicates that the client can localize and withdraw from the painful stimulus. This is the highest level of motor response on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which is a neurological scoring system used to assess conscious level after head injury.
Choice C reason: Extending the body toward the painful stimulus is an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of decerebrate posturing, which indicates damage to the brainstem or midbrain. Decerebrate posturing is a type of abnormal extension that involves the abduction of the arms, external rotation of the shoulders, extension of the wrists, and extension of the legs.
Choice D reason: Showing no reaction to the painful stimulus is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of flaccid paralysis, which indicates damage to the spinal cord or peripheral nerves. Flaccid paralysis is a type of complete loss of muscle tone and reflexes that involves the absence of any voluntary or involuntary movements.
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