A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?
It is best to take the medication with meals.
Treatment with this medication will last for 1 month.
This medication can cause insomnia.
Urine and other secretions might turn orange.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is incorrect. It is not best to take medication with meals. Rifampin is better absorbed when taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. Taking rifampin with food can reduce its effectiveness and increase the risk of drug resistance. The nurse should advise the client to take the medication as directed by the doctor, and to avoid foods that can interact with rifampin, such as cheese, yogurt, or alcohol.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect. Treatment with this medication will not last for 1 month. Rifampin is usually given as part of a combination therapy for pulmonary tuberculosis, along with other drugs such as isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The standard treatment regimen for drug susceptible tuberculosis consists of an intensive phase of 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of 4 or 7 months, depending on the drug regimen and the patient's response. The nurse should inform the client about the duration and the importance of completing the full course of treatment, even if the symptoms improve or the tests become negative.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect. This medication does not cause insomnia. Rifampin does not affect the sleep cycle or the quality of sleep. However, rifampin can cause other side effects, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, or rash. The nurse should instruct the client to report any severe or persistent side effects to the doctor, and to avoid taking over-the-counter drugs or herbal supplements without consulting the doctor, as rifampin can interact with many other medications and reduce their effectiveness.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Urine and other secretions might turn orange. Rifampin can cause a harmless discoloration of body fluids, such as urine, saliva, sweat, tears, or breast milk. The color can range from orange to red or brown, depending on the concentration of the drug and the pH of the fluid. The nurse should reassure the client that this is a normal and expected effect of rifampin, and that it does not indicate any damage to the kidneys or other organs. The nurse should also warn the client that rifampin can stain contact lenses, dentures, or clothing, and advise the client to use disposable lenses, remove dentures before taking the drug, and wear dark colored clothes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decrease respiratory secretions. This answer is incorrect because pancuronium does not have any effect on the production or clearance of respiratory secretions. This medication is not used to treat the pulmonary edema and inflammation that occur in ARDS.
Choice B reason: Induce sedation. This answer is incorrect because pancuronium does not have any sedative or analgesic properties. This medication does not affect the level of consciousness or pain perception of the client. A client who receives pancuronium should also receive adequate sedation and analgesia to prevent anxiety and discomfort.
Choice C reason: Suppress respiratory effort. This answer is correct because pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocker that inhibits the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles, causing paralysis and relaxation. This medication is used to suppress the respiratory effort of the client and allow the mechanical ventilator to control the breathing.
Choice D reason: Decrease chest wall compliance. This answer is incorrect because pancuronium does not have any effect on the elasticity or stiffness of the chest wall. This medication is not used to treat the reduced lung compliance and increased airway resistance that occur in ARDS.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Flexing the upper and extending the lower extremities in response to the painful stimulus is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of decorticate posturing, which indicates damage to the cerebral hemispheres or the internal capsule. Decorticate posturing is a type of abnormal flexion that involves the abduction of the arms, internal rotation of the shoulders, flexion of the wrists, and extension of the legs.
Choice B reason: Pushing the painful stimulus away is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of normal motor function, which indicates that the client can localize and withdraw from the painful stimulus. This is the highest level of motor response on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which is a neurological scoring system used to assess conscious level after head injury.
Choice C reason: Extending the body toward the painful stimulus is an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of decerebrate posturing, which indicates damage to the brainstem or midbrain. Decerebrate posturing is a type of abnormal extension that involves the abduction of the arms, external rotation of the shoulders, extension of the wrists, and extension of the legs.
Choice D reason: Showing no reaction to the painful stimulus is not an expected response for a client who has a traumatic head injury. This is a sign of flaccid paralysis, which indicates damage to the spinal cord or peripheral nerves. Flaccid paralysis is a type of complete loss of muscle tone and reflexes that involves the absence of any voluntary or involuntary movements.
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