A nurse is caring for a client who has an endotracheal tube and is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia?
Position the head of the client’s bed in the flat position.
Brush the client’s teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hr.
Provide humidity by maintaining moisture within the ventilator tubing.
Turn the client every 4 hr.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Positioning the head of the client’s bed in the flat position is not a good way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. This position can increase the risk of aspiration of oral secretions or gastric contents into the lungs, which can cause infection. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees to prevent aspiration and promote drainage of secretions.
Choice B reason: Brushing the client’s teeth with a suction toothbrush every 12 hr is an effective way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Oral hygiene can reduce the number of bacteria in the mouth and prevent the formation of dental plaque, which can harbor pathogens that can cause pneumonia. The nurse should use a suction toothbrush to remove debris and secretions from the mouth and prevent them from entering the lungs.
Choice C reason: Providing humidity by maintaining moisture within the ventilator tubing is not a helpful way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Humidity can increase the growth of bacteria and fungi in the ventilator circuit, which can contaminate the air delivered to the lungs. The nurse should change the ventilator tubing and filters regularly and use sterile water to fill the humidifier.
Choice D reason: Turning the client every 4 hr is not a sufficient way to reduce the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia. Turning can help prevent pressure ulcers and improve blood circulation, but it does not prevent the accumulation of secretions in the lungs, which can cause infection. The nurse should use chest physiotherapy, suctioning, and coughing techniques to mobilize and clear secretions from the airways.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eliciting the gag reflex is not a valid way to assess cranial nerve III. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents choking or aspiration by triggering a contraction of the pharyngeal muscles when the back of the throat is stimulated. The gag reflex is mediated by cranial nerves IX and X, not III.
Choice B reason: Checking the pupillary response to light is a reliable way to assess cranial nerve III. The pupillary response to light is a reflex that causes the pupil to constrict when exposed to bright light and dilate when exposed to dim light. This reflex helps to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and protects the retina from damage. The pupillary response to light is controlled by cranial nerve III, which innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle that constricts the pupil.
Choice C reason: Observing for facial symmetry is not a relevant way to assess cranial nerve III. Facial symmetry is the degree of similarity between the two halves of the face. Facial symmetry can be affected by various factors, such as genetics, aging, or facial nerve palsy. Facial nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control facial expression. Facial nerve palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve VII, not III.
Choice D reason: Testing visual acuity is not a sufficient way to assess cranial nerve III. Visual acuity is the ability to see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. Visual acuity depends on various factors, such as the clarity of the lens and cornea, the shape of the eyeball, and the function of the retina. Visual acuity is mainly affected by cranial nerve II, which carries visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve III does not directly influence visual acuity, but it does innervate some of the muscles that move the eye and enable binocular vision.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypotension is not a common manifestation of ARF. Hypotension is a low blood pressure, defined as less than 90/60 mm Hg. Hypotension can have many causes, such as dehydration, blood loss, heart problems, or medications. ARF does not directly cause hypotension, but it can lead to complications such as shock or organ failure, which can lower the blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Decreased level of consciousness is a frequent manifestation of ARF. Decreased level of consciousness is a state of impaired awareness, orientation, memory, or judgment. Decreased level of consciousness can occur in ARF due to several factors, such as hypoxia, hypercapnia, acidosis, or infection. The nurse should monitor the mental status of the client with ARF and report any changes to the provider.
Choice C reason: Severe dyspnea is a common manifestation of ARF. Dyspnea is a subjective sensation of difficulty breathing or shortness of breath. Severe dyspnea can occur in ARF due to the reduced oxygen delivery or increased carbon dioxide retention in the blood. The nurse should assess the respiratory rate, rhythm, depth, and effort of the client with ARF and provide oxygen therapy as prescribed.
Choice D reason: Headache is not a typical manifestation of ARF. Headache is a pain or discomfort in the head, scalp, or neck. Headache can have many causes, such as stress, dehydration, sinusitis, or migraine. ARF does not directly cause headache, but it can cause increased intracranial pressure or cerebral edema, which can trigger headache.
Choice E reason: Nausea is not a usual manifestation of ARF. Nausea is a feeling of sickness or discomfort in the stomach that can lead to vomiting. Nausea can have many causes, such as food poisoning, motion sickness, pregnancy, or medications. ARF does not directly cause nausea, but it can cause gastrointestinal bleeding or hepatic encephalopathy, which can induce nausea.
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