A female client who has a borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. When the nurse makes morning rounds, the client begins the interaction by complaining about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see that, "My favorite nurse is on duty now." Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client's dichotomous tendency?
"Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night."
"I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home."
"I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?"
"What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?"
The Correct Answer is D
A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Pupillary response is not relevant to the assessment of mesalamine's effectiveness.
Pupillary response is often assessed in neurological or ophthalmic evaluations and is not a direct measure of gastrointestinal function or the response to mesalamine therapy.
B) Incorrect- Peripheral pulses are not directly affected by mesalamine therapy, and monitoring them would not provide insight into the medication's effectiveness. Peripheral pulses are
typically assessed to evaluate the circulatory status and are not specific to the evaluation of gastrointestinal conditions.
C) Correct- Mesalamine is a medication commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It helps to reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring bowel patterns is important to assess the effectiveness of mesalamine in managing the symptoms of these conditions.
D) Incorrect- Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is used to assess respiratory function. While oxygen saturation is important for overall patient assessment, it is not directly related to mesalamine's effectiveness in treating inflammatory bowel disease.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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