A client with bleeding esophageal varices receives vasopressin intravenously (IV). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of this medication?
Decreasing gastrointestinal (GI) cramping and nausea.
Chest pain and dysrhythmia.
Vasodilation of the extremities.
Hypotension and tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B
Choice A reason: Vasopressin is not typically associated with decreasing GI cramping and nausea. It is used to treat diabetes insipidus and to reduce stomach bloat for some procedures and after some surgeries.
Choice B reason: Vasopressin can cause chest pain or pressure, and fast, slow, or abnormal heartbeat, which are indicative of dysrhythmia. These are known side effects of vasopressin and should be monitored during IV infusion.
Choice C reason: Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation. It tightens small blood vessels, which is the opposite of vasodilation.
Choice D reason: While vasopressin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension is not a common effect as it is used to treat low blood pressure. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is not a typical side effect of vasopressin.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury is not indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. An epidural hematoma typically manifests as a lucid interval followed by a rapid deterioration in consciousness hours after the injury.
Choice B rationale:
Cushing reflex (increased blood pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) and cerebral edema after 24 hours are characteristic signs of a developing epidural hematoma. This occurs due to the accumulation of blood between the dura mater and the skull, leading to increased intracranial pressure.
Choice C rationale:
Headache and pupillary changes 48 hours after head injury are not specific signs of an epidural hematoma. These symptoms may indicate various other neurological conditions or complications.
Choice D rationale:
Fever, nuchal rigidity, and opisthotonos within hours are suggestive of meningitis rather than an epidural hematoma. These symptoms are not typical of epidural hematomas, which primarily involve alterations in consciousness and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sinus tachycardia may occur in response to various stressors or physiological conditions but is not directly related to anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. It is not the primary pathological process resulting from this condition.
Choice B rationale:
Menstrual cramps are not a pathological process but rather a symptom that may result from hormonal changes or other factors. While amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods) is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, menstrual cramps are not a primary concern in this context.
Choice C rationale:
Hypertension is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. In fact, individuals with anorexia nervosa often experience hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and nutritional deficiencies.
Choice D rationale:
Amenorrhea is the primary pathological process resulting from the adolescent's consistent maladaptive behavior of anorexia nervosa. Severe malnutrition and low body weight can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and lead to amenorrhea. This is a significant concern for individuals with anorexia nervosa and can have long-term health implications.
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