A client with bleeding esophageal varices receives vasopressin intravenously (IV). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of this medication?
Decreasing gastrointestinal (GI) cramping and nausea.
Chest pain and dysrhythmia.
Vasodilation of the extremities.
Hypotension and tachycardia.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B
Choice A reason: Vasopressin is not typically associated with decreasing GI cramping and nausea. It is used to treat diabetes insipidus and to reduce stomach bloat for some procedures and after some surgeries.
Choice B reason: Vasopressin can cause chest pain or pressure, and fast, slow, or abnormal heartbeat, which are indicative of dysrhythmia. These are known side effects of vasopressin and should be monitored during IV infusion.
Choice C reason: Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation. It tightens small blood vessels, which is the opposite of vasodilation.
Choice D reason: While vasopressin can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension is not a common effect as it is used to treat low blood pressure. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is not a typical side effect of vasopressin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B.
Choice A rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a loss of acid or a gain of base. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice B rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation, which leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can occur in response to anxiety, pain, or other stressors.
Choice C rationale: Metabolic acidosis is caused by a buildup of acid in the blood or a loss of bicarbonate. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice D rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, which leads to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client’s presentation of a noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are classic symptoms of a stroke. These symptoms indicate that the brain is not receiving enough oxygen, which can lead to permanent damage if not treated immediately. Therefore, this client requires immediate health interventions.
Choice B rationale:
This choice is identical to Choice A. The client’s noticeable facial droop and garbled speech are indicative of a stroke and require immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is also identical to Choices A and B. The client’s symptoms are indicative of a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D rationale:
While the change in the client’s speech after having a few drinks at a restaurant could be due to alcohol consumption, it could also be a symptom of a stroke, especially when combined with the facial droop. However, this choice does not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions as it lacks the specificity of the symptoms compared to Choices A, B, and C.
Choice E rationale:
The time of arrival and mode of transportation do not directly indicate the need for immediate health interventions. However, the mention of facial drooping and garbled speech upon arrival at the emergency department reinforces the urgency of the situation, as these are classic symptoms of a stroke. In conclusion, Choices A, B, C, and E all highlight data that indicate the client is in need of immediate health interventions due to potential stroke symptoms. It’s important to note that strokes require immediate medical attention to minimize brain damage and potential complications. Normal ranges for lab parameters would not apply in this scenario as it’s based on clinical observations rather than laboratory findings.
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