In assessing a client with an indwelling urinary catheter following the provision of care by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the practical nurse (PN) observes that the catheter drainage bag, which is half- full, is attached to the side rail and the tubing is looped on the bed.

Which action should the PN implement?

Apply gloves and empty the drainage bag

Remove the looped tubing from the bed

Measure the urinary output in the bag

Attach the drainage bag to the bed frame

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is choice d. Attach the drainage bag to the bed frame.

Choice A rationale:

Applying gloves and emptying the drainage bag is not the immediate priority. The drainage bag should not be allowed to overfill, but in this scenario, it is only half-full.

Choice B rationale:

Removing the looped tubing from the bed is important to ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow, but it does not address the incorrect placement of the drainage bag.

Choice C rationale:

Measuring the urinary output in the bag is a routine task but does not correct the improper placement of the drainage bag.

Choice D rationale:

Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame is the correct action. The drainage bag should be kept below the level of the bladder and attached to a non-movable part of the bed to prevent backflow and reduce the risk of infection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

“I should take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset.” Rationale: This statement is not accurate for fluconazole. While some medications should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset, fluconazole is typically taken on an empty stomach. Taking it with food may reduce its absorption.

Choice B rationale:

“I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.” Rationale: This is the correct response. Fluconazole can interact with alcohol and may lead to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, it is essential to avoid alcohol while taking fluconazole.

Choice C rationale:

“I should use a barrier method of contraception while taking this medication.” Rationale: While it is generally a good practice to use barrier contraception during treatment for a fungal infection to prevent potential spread to a partner, this statement does not specifically address fluconazole's requirements or interactions.

Choice D rationale:

“I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.” Rationale: This statement is not entirely accurate. While it is important to monitor for skin rashes as they can be a sign of an allergic reaction, the decision to stop taking fluconazole should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider. It is not an automatic response to developing a rash.

A. Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). B. Enalapril 10 mg every morning. C. Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. D. Continuous pulse oximetry. E. Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. F. Admit to the medical floor. G. Vital signs every 4 hours.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.

Choice B rationale:

Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.

Choice C rationale:

Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.

Choice D rationale:

Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.

Choice E rationale:

Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.

Choice F rationale:

Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.

Choice G rationale:

Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.

Choice H rationale:

Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.

Choice I rationale:

Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.

Choice J rationale:

Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who has a fungal infection about fluconazole. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Patient Data. Exhibits Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]

Explanation

A client who has been prescribed propranolol for the treatment of arrhythmias reports experiencing shortness of breath and difficulty breathing while lying down at night. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A client who is reaching saturation with medication reports the onset of muscle soreness and fatigue, and the practical nurse (PN) notes that the client's skin is warm to the touch. Which action by the PN is a priority?

After an increase in the number of suicides in a community, the nurse is developing a class for adolescents about mental health. Which type of activity should the nurse include in the teaching?

Four days after exposure to the coronavirus (COVID-19), a client has a negative COVID-19 test result. Eight days after the negative test result, the client presents with fever, fatigue, and cough, and the nurse performs a second COVID-19 test. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension and is prescribed metoprolol, a beta blocker. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Patient Data. Exhibits What are three goals of therapy for this client? Select three that apply.

A nurse is teaching a group of older adults about the effects of aging on the neurological system. Which of the following statements should the nurse include as correct? (Select all that apply.).