A client is recovering in the critical care unit following a cardiac catheterization.

Intravenous (IV) nitroglycerin and heparin are infusing.

The client is sedated but responds to verbal instructions.

After changing positions, the client complains of pain at the right groin insertion site.

Which action should the nurse implement?

The correct answer is choice b. “Curling’s ulcer.”

Choice A rationale:

Elevated blood pressure is not a common complication specifically associated with partial-thickness burns. It may occur due to pain or stress but is not the most critical complication to anticipate.

Choice B rationale:

Curling’s ulcer, a type of stress ulcer, is a significant complication that can develop in burn patients due to the stress response and reduced blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract.

Choice C rationale:

Compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with circumferential full-thickness burns rather than partial-thickness burns.

Choice D rationale:

Excruciating pain is a symptom rather than a complication. While pain management is crucial, it is not the most critical complication to anticipate.

Choice A rationale:

Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.

Choice B rationale:

Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.

Choice C rationale:

Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.

Choice D rationale:

Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.

Choice E rationale:

Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.

Choice F rationale:

Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.

Choice G rationale:

Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.

Choice H rationale:

Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.

Choice I rationale:

Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.

Choice J rationale:

Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.