A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Decreased heart rate
Increased contractility
Dilated coronary arteries
Reduced blood pressure E.
Relieved chest pain.
Correct Answer : C,E
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms. It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.
Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it. This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it. This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it. This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.
Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.
Choice B is wrong because heparin and warfarin do not have a synergistic effect.
They work on different clotting factors, but they do not enhance each other’s effects.
Choice C is wrong because the route of administration is not relevant to the rationale for using both medications.
Heparin and warfarin can be given by different routes, but that does not explain why they are both necessary.
Choice D is wrong because warfarin does not help dissolve existing clots.
Warfarin prevents the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not break down clots that have already formed.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
The nurse should include headache and dyspnea as potential adverse effects of bivalirudin.According to the drug information from various sources, bivalirudin can cause common side effects such as headache, nausea, low or high blood pressure, chest pain, abdominal pain, and shortness of breath (dyspnea).
These side effects should be reported to the provider if they are severe or persistent.
Choice B is wrong because fever is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.
However, fever can be a sign of infection or an allergic reaction to the drug, which should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice C is wrong because chest pain is not an adverse effect of bivalirudin, but rather a symptom of angina, which is one of the conditions that bivalirudin is used to treat.
Chest pain can also indicate a heart attack or other serious cardiac problems, which require immediate medical attention.
Choice D is wrong because backache is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.
However, backache can be a sign of bleeding in the kidneys or other organs, which can be a serious complication of bivalirudin therapy.
Therefore, any unusual pain or swelling in the back or abdomen should be reported to the provider as soon as possible.
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