A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Decreased heart rate

Increased contractility

Dilated coronary arteries

Reduced blood pressure E.

Relieved chest pain.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : C,E

Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms. It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.

Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it. This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it. This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it. This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.

Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.

Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.

Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.

Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.

A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Argatroban D. Alteplase.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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