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A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed warfarin [Coumadin] in addition to IV heparin therapy after experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). The patient asks why both medications are necessary if they do similar things in preventing clots from forming in his body.

Which response by the nurse best explains why both medications are necessary? (Select all that apply.).

“Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.”

“Heparin and warfarin work on different clotting factors in your blood, so they have a synergistic effect.”

“Heparin is given by injection, while warfarin is given by mouth, so they have different routes of administration.”

“Heparin prevents new clots from forming, while warfarin helps dissolve existing clots in your blood vessels.”

“Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.”.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,E

Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.

Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.

Choice B is wrong because heparin and warfarin do not have a synergistic effect.

They work on different clotting factors, but they do not enhance each other’s effects.

Choice C is wrong because the route of administration is not relevant to the rationale for using both medications.

Heparin and warfarin can be given by different routes, but that does not explain why they are both necessary.

Choice D is wrong because warfarin does not help dissolve existing clots.

Warfarin prevents the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not break down clots that have already formed.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.

Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.

• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.

Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.

• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.

The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.

A. Hypotension B. Bleeding C. Dysrhythmias D. Nausea E. Fever.

Correct Answer is ["B"]

Explanation

Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow.However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs.Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.

Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.

Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.

Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B"]

Explanation

Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

A client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?