A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Warfarin

Clopidogrel

Argatroban

Alteplase.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis. The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis. Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation. Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots. Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications. Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.

Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.

Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.

Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.

A. Avoid applying pressure to needleless access sites after giving medications. B. Monitor neurologic status every 15 minutes during and after infusion. C. Administer heparin when partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is less than 70 seconds. D. Give aspirin when platelet count is greater than 150,000/mm3.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

This is because alteplase [Activase] is a thrombolytic drug that dissolves blood clots and can cause bleeding complications, especially intracranial hemorrhage.Neurologic assessment is essential to detect any signs of bleeding in the brain, such as altered level of consciousness, headache, or focal deficits.

Choice A is wrong because applying pressure to needleless access sites after giving medications is a standard precaution to prevent bleeding and infection.It is not specific to alteplase [Activase] therapy.

Choice C is wrong because administering heparin when partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is less than 70 seconds is not recommended for patients who have received alteplase [Activase].

Heparin is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding and should be used with caution in patients who have received thrombolytic therapy.The PTT should be monitored closely and heparin should be withheld if the PTT is above the therapeutic range.

Choice D is wrong because giving aspirin when platelet count is greater than 150,000/mm3 is not indicated for patients who have received alteplase [Activase].

Aspirin is an antiplatelet drug that can also increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in patients who have received thrombolytic therapy.

The platelet count should be monitored closely and aspirin should be withheld if the platelet count is below the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm3).

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A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a patient who has received alteplase [Activase]. It is most important for the nurse to take which action?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

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