A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Warfarin

Clopidogrel

Argatroban

Alteplase.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis. The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis. Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation. Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots. Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications. Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation.The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.

Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.

Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.

The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories.The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.

Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.

Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors.Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.

A. Assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding B. Continuing heparin therapy at current rate C. Decreasing heparin therapy per protocol D. Holding heparin therapy per protocol E. Increasing heparin therapy per protocol.

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.

Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.

• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.

Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.

• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.

The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.

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A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has received alteplase [Activase]. It is most important for the nurse to take which action?

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

A patient is ordered to start an IV continuous Heparin drip. Prior to starting the medication, the nurse would ensure what information is gathered correctly before initiating the drip? Select all that apply: *.

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and is receiving enoxaparin therapy subcutaneously once daily at home. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for bivalirudin about potential adverse effects of the drug. Which of the following effects should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)