A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?
Warfarin
Clopidogrel
Argatroban
Alteplase.
The Correct Answer is C
This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis. The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.
Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis. Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.
Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation. Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation. Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.
Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots. Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications. Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation.The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories.The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors.Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.
Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.
Choice B is wrong because heparin and warfarin do not have a synergistic effect.
They work on different clotting factors, but they do not enhance each other’s effects.
Choice C is wrong because the route of administration is not relevant to the rationale for using both medications.
Heparin and warfarin can be given by different routes, but that does not explain why they are both necessary.
Choice D is wrong because warfarin does not help dissolve existing clots.
Warfarin prevents the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not break down clots that have already formed.
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