A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Hypotension

Bleeding

Dysrhythmias

Nausea

Fever.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B

Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow. However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.

Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.

Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.

Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. International normalized ratio (INR) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) D. Platelet count. E. Platelet count.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade.

Dabigatran prolongs the aPTT, which is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.The aPTT can be used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, although routine monitoring is not required.

Choice A) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are not affected by dabigatran.

PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

Choice B) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized version of PT that is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.

INR is not affected by dabigatran.

Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is a measure of the number of platelets in the blood, which are involved in primary hemostasis.

Platelet count is not affected by dabigatran, which acts on secondary hemostasis.

Normal ranges for these tests are:

• aPTT: 25 to 35 seconds

• PT: 11 to 13.5 seconds

• INR: 0.8 to 1.2

• Platelet count: 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter of blood

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A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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