A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Hypotension
Bleeding
Dysrhythmias
Nausea
Fever.
Correct Answer : B
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow. However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.
Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.
Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.
Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.
Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.
The other choices are wrong because:
• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.
• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.
Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.
• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.
The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation.The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories.The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors.Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
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