A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Hypotension
Bleeding
Dysrhythmias
Nausea
Fever.
Correct Answer : B
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow. However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.
Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.
Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.
Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation.The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories.The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors.Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the coagulation cascade.
Dabigatran prolongs the aPTT, which is a measure of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.The aPTT can be used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of dabigatran, although routine monitoring is not required.
Choice A) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are not affected by dabigatran.
PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.
Choice B) International normalized ratio (INR) is wrong because INR is a standardized version of PT that is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not dabigatran.
INR is not affected by dabigatran.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because platelet count is a measure of the number of platelets in the blood, which are involved in primary hemostasis.
Platelet count is not affected by dabigatran, which acts on secondary hemostasis.
Normal ranges for these tests are:
• aPTT: 25 to 35 seconds
• PT: 11 to 13.5 seconds
• INR: 0.8 to 1.2
• Platelet count: 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter of blood
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