A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Hypotension

Bleeding

Dysrhythmias

Nausea

Fever.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B

Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow. However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.

Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.

Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.

Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase. Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Argatroban D. Alteplase.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed apixaban (Eliquis) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instructions should be included in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A patient has been prescribed rivaroxaban (Xarelto) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of medication teaching?

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