Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:
A 55-year-old male patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery.
A 45-year-old female patient with a pulmonary embolism.
A 36-year-old male patient with active peptic ulcer disease.
A 43-year-old female with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.
Correct Answer : A,C
Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits blood clotting and prevents harmful clots from forming in blood vessels. However, heparin can also cause some serious side effects, such as bleeding, bruising, low platelet count, allergic reactions, and osteoporosis.
Therefore, patients who are at a high risk for developing these adverse effects should be monitored closely and have their heparin dose adjusted accordingly.
Choice A is correct because a patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery has a high risk of bleeding from the surgical site or intracranially. Heparin can increase this risk and cause life-threatening hemorrhage.
Therefore, this patient should not receive heparin unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.
Choice B is wrong because a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) is a candidate for heparin therapy.
A PE is a blood clot that blocks the blood flow to the lungs and can cause respiratory failure and death. Heparin can prevent the clot from becoming larger and causing more damage, and also prevent new clots from forming.
Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.
Choice C is correct because a patient with active peptic ulcer disease (PUD) has a high risk of bleeding from the stomach or duodenum.
PUD is a condition where the lining of the digestive tract is eroded by stomach acid and bacteria. Heparin can worsen this condition and cause ulcer bleeding or perforation.
Therefore, this patient should avoid heparin therapy unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.
Choice D is wrong because a patient with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (AF) is a candidate for heparin therapy.
AF is an irregular heartbeat that can cause blood clots to form in the heart chambers and travel to other organs, such as the brain or lungs. Heparin can prevent these clots from forming and reduce the risk of stroke or PE.
Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.
Normal ranges of heparin depend on the type of heparin used (unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin), the method of administration (intravenous or subcutaneous), and the indication for use (prophylaxis or treatment). Generally, the therapeutic range for heparin level is 0.3 - 0.7 U/mL, measured by anti-Xa assay. However, this range may vary depending on the pregnancy stage and the type of heparin used. The dose of heparin should be individualized according to the results of suitable laboratory tests and clinical response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B"]
Explanation
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow.However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs.Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.
Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.
Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.
Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation.The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories.The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors.Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
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