Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A 55-year-old male patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery.

A 45-year-old female patient with a pulmonary embolism.

A 36-year-old male patient with active peptic ulcer disease.

A 43-year-old female with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,C

Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits blood clotting and prevents harmful clots from forming in blood vessels. However, heparin can also cause some serious side effects, such as bleeding, bruising, low platelet count, allergic reactions, and osteoporosis.

Therefore, patients who are at a high risk for developing these adverse effects should be monitored closely and have their heparin dose adjusted accordingly.

Choice A is correct because a patient who is post-op day 1 from brain surgery has a high risk of bleeding from the surgical site or intracranially. Heparin can increase this risk and cause life-threatening hemorrhage.

Therefore, this patient should not receive heparin unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.

Choice B is wrong because a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) is a candidate for heparin therapy.

A PE is a blood clot that blocks the blood flow to the lungs and can cause respiratory failure and death. Heparin can prevent the clot from becoming larger and causing more damage, and also prevent new clots from forming.

Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.

Choice C is correct because a patient with active peptic ulcer disease (PUD) has a high risk of bleeding from the stomach or duodenum.

PUD is a condition where the lining of the digestive tract is eroded by stomach acid and bacteria. Heparin can worsen this condition and cause ulcer bleeding or perforation.

Therefore, this patient should avoid heparin therapy unless absolutely necessary and under strict supervision.

Choice D is wrong because a patient with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (AF) is a candidate for heparin therapy.

AF is an irregular heartbeat that can cause blood clots to form in the heart chambers and travel to other organs, such as the brain or lungs. Heparin can prevent these clots from forming and reduce the risk of stroke or PE.

Therefore, this patient would benefit from heparin therapy and is not at a high risk of adverse effects.

Normal ranges of heparin depend on the type of heparin used (unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin), the method of administration (intravenous or subcutaneous), and the indication for use (prophylaxis or treatment). Generally, the therapeutic range for heparin level is 0.3 - 0.7 U/mL, measured by anti-Xa assay. However, this range may vary depending on the pregnancy stage and the type of heparin used. The dose of heparin should be individualized according to the results of suitable laboratory tests and clinical response.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 6 hours D. 8 hours.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.

Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.

Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.

Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.

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Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse should instruct the patient to:

Which patients below would be at a HIGH risk for developing adverse effects of Heparin drug therapy? Select all that apply:

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who has pulmonary embolism and is receiving alteplase via continuous IV infusion.The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin and has an INR of 2.5.The patient reports having frequent headaches and asks for an over-the-counter pain reliever.The nurse will recommend which medication?

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).