A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)
Unusual bleeding or bruising
Blood in urine or stool
Abdominal pain or swelling
Headache or dizziness
Shortness of breath.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa) is a medication that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.
However, it can also cause bleeding as a side effect.
Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of unusual bleeding or bruising, blood in urine or stool, or abdominal pain or swelling immediately. These could indicate a serious complication such as gastrointestinal bleeding, hemorrhage, or internal organ damage.
Choice D, headache or dizziness, is not a correct answer.
Although these symptoms could be caused by dabigatran, they are not as serious or urgent as bleeding.
They could also be due to other factors such as dehydration, low blood pressure, or stress. The nurse should advise the client to monitor these symptoms and seek medical attention if they persist or worsen.
Choice E, shortness of breath, is not a correct answer.
Shortness of breath is not a common side effect of dabigatran.
However, it could be a symptom of atrial fibrillation or its complications such as heart failure or stroke. The nurse should educate the client about the signs and symptoms of these conditions and instruct them to call 911 if they experience chest pain, palpitations, fainting, or weakness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.
Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.
Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.
Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms.It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.
Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it.This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it.This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it.This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.
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