A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?
2 hours
4 hours
6 hours
8 hours.
The Correct Answer is B
Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver. The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.
Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.
Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.
Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.
The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This statement indicates that the patient understands that rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising.The patient should avoid activities that may cause injury, such as contact sports, sharp objects, or falls.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin is also an antiplatelet drug that can further increase the risk of bleeding when taken with rivaroxaban.The patient should not take aspirin or any other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) without consulting the prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because rivaroxaban can be taken with or without food.The patient does not need to take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset or absorption problems.
Choice D is wrong because rivaroxaban should be taken as prescribed and not stopped abruptly without consulting the prescriber.Stopping the medication can increase the risk of blood clots and stroke.The patient should not stop taking the medication even if they feel better or have no symptoms.
Correct Answer is ["B"]
Explanation
Alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that dissolves blood clots and restores blood flow.However, it also increases the risk of bleeding from any site, such as the nose, gums, injection sites, or internal organs.Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, hematemesis, melena, or decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Choice A is wrong because hypotension is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Hypotension may occur due to blood loss from bleeding or other causes, such as dehydration, sepsis, or cardiac dysfunction.
Choice C is wrong because dysrhythmias are not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Dysrhythmias may occur due to pulmonary embolism itself, which can cause hypoxia, acidosis, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.
Choice D is wrong because nausea is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Nausea may occur due to other factors, such as anxiety, pain, or medications.
Choice E is wrong because fever is not a common adverse effect of alteplase.Fever may occur due to infection, inflammation, or other causes.
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