A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Prothrombin time (PT)
International normalized ratio (INR)
Platelet count.
The Correct Answer is C
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.
Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.
Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa. The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.
Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.
The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories. The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.
Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.
Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors. Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is given until warfarin reaches an effective level in your blood.
Heparin has a shorter duration of action than warfarin, so it is easier to reverse if bleeding occurs.
Choice B is wrong because heparin and warfarin do not have a synergistic effect.
They work on different clotting factors, but they do not enhance each other’s effects.
Choice C is wrong because the route of administration is not relevant to the rationale for using both medications.
Heparin and warfarin can be given by different routes, but that does not explain why they are both necessary.
Choice D is wrong because warfarin does not help dissolve existing clots.
Warfarin prevents the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not break down clots that have already formed.
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used to treat variant angina by dilating the coronary arteries and relieving the chest pain caused by spasms.It also reduces blood pressure and heart rate, but these are not the expected outcomes for variant angina.
Choice A is wrong because verapamil decreases heart rate, not increases it.This can help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice B is wrong because verapamil decreases contractility, not increases it.This can also help reduce the oxygen demand of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Choice D is wrong because verapamil reduces blood pressure, not increases it.This can help lower the workload of the heart, but it is not the main goal of therapy for variant angina.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute, for blood pressure are 120/80 mm Hg or lower, and for contractility are measured by ejection fraction, which is normally 55% or higher.
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