A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Prothrombin time (PT)

International normalized ratio (INR)

Platelet count.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The INR is a standardized measure of the prothrombin time (PT), which reflects the degree of anticoagulation. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3 for most conditions, and higher for some mechanical heart valves.

Choice A) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is wrong because it is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

Heparin is another anticoagulant that works by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa. The therapeutic range for aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, which is 30 to 40 seconds.

Choice B) Prothrombin time (PT) is wrong because it is not a standardized measure of the warfarin effect.

The PT can vary depending on the reagents and methods used by different laboratories. The INR was developed to eliminate this variability and provide a consistent measure of the warfarin effect.

Choice D) Platelet count is wrong because it is not affected by warfarin therapy.

Warfarin does not affect the number or function of platelets, only the clotting factors. Platelet count can be used to monitor other conditions that affect hemostasis, such as thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI) that is used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) who require urgent surgery. Argatroban has a half-life of about 40 to 50 minutes and is cleared by the liver.The infusion should be stopped at least 4 hours before the surgery to allow adequate time for the anticoagulant effect to wear off.The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) should be monitored before and after the infusion to assess the degree of anticoagulation.

Choice A is wrong because 2 hours is not enough time to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may still have a high risk of bleeding if the aPTT is prolonged.

Choice C is wrong because 6 hours is longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a higher risk of thrombosis if the anticoagulation effect is too low.

Choice D is wrong because 8 hours is much longer than necessary to stop the argatroban infusion before surgery.

The patient may have a very low level of anticoagulation and a high risk of thrombosis if the infusion is stopped for too long.

A. Assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding B. Continuing heparin therapy at current rate C. Decreasing heparin therapy per protocol D. Holding heparin therapy per protocol E. Increasing heparin therapy per protocol.

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.

Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.

The other choices are wrong because:

• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.

• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.

Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.

• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.

The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds.A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin therapy to prevent thromboembolism formation. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

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