The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).
Assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding
Continuing heparin therapy at current rate
Decreasing heparin therapy per protocol
Holding heparin therapy per protocol
Increasing heparin therapy per protocol.
Correct Answer : A,D
A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.
Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.
The other choices are wrong because:
• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.
• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.
Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.
• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.
The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds. A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.
Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.
Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.
Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.
Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.
Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.
Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs.Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes.Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.
Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.
Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.
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