The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).
Assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding
Continuing heparin therapy at current rate
Decreasing heparin therapy per protocol
Holding heparin therapy per protocol
Increasing heparin therapy per protocol.
Correct Answer : A,D
A patient with a high aPTT result is at risk for bleeding, so assessing for signs and symptoms of bleeding is important.
Holding heparin therapy per protocol is also appropriate, as heparin is the cause of the prolonged aPTT.
The other choices are wrong because:
• Choice B is wrong because continuing heparin therapy at the current rate will increase the risk of bleeding and further prolong the aPTT.
• Choice C is wrong because decreasing heparin therapy per protocol is not enough to reverse the effects of heparin.
Heparin should be stopped until the aPTT returns to the therapeutic range.
• Choice E is wrong because increasing heparin therapy per protocol will worsen the situation and cause more bleeding and coagulation problems.
The normal range for aPTT is 25 to 35 seconds, and the therapeutic range for heparin therapy is 60 to 80 seconds. A result of 90 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and increased bleeding risk.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This statement indicates that the patient understands that rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an anticoagulant that can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising.The patient should avoid activities that may cause injury, such as contact sports, sharp objects, or falls.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin is also an antiplatelet drug that can further increase the risk of bleeding when taken with rivaroxaban.The patient should not take aspirin or any other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) without consulting the prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because rivaroxaban can be taken with or without food.The patient does not need to take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset or absorption problems.
Choice D is wrong because rivaroxaban should be taken as prescribed and not stopped abruptly without consulting the prescriber.Stopping the medication can increase the risk of blood clots and stroke.The patient should not stop taking the medication even if they feel better or have no symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.
Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.
Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.
Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.
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