The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

History of hypertension

History of stroke

History of peptic ulcer disease

History of diabetes mellitus.

Shortness of breath.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one. This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one. Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy. In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.

Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.

Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.

Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs.Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes.Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.

Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.

Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

A. Warfarin B. Clopidogrel C. Argatroban D. Alteplase.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because argatroban is a direct thrombin inhibitor that can be used as an alternative anticoagulant for patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).HIT is an immune-mediated disorder that occurs when antibodies form against heparin and platelet factor 4, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.The diagnosis of HIT is based on clinical criteria and laboratory tests.

Choice A is wrong because warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.Warfarin is contraindicated in patients with HIT because it can worsen the thrombotic complications and cause skin necrosis.Warfarin should only be started after the platelet count has recovered and the patient is adequately anticoagulated with a non-heparin agent.

Choice B is wrong because clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets, preventing their aggregation.Clopidogrel is not effective for the treatment of HIT, as it does not target the underlying mechanism of thrombin generation.Clopidogrel may also increase the risk of bleeding in patients with HIT.

Choice D is wrong because alteplase is a fibrinolytic agent that converts plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots.Alteplase is not indicated for the treatment of HIT, as it does not prevent further thrombosis and may cause severe bleeding complications.Alteplase may be used as a last resort for life-threatening thrombosis in patients with HIT who do not respond to other therapies.

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The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient is receiving heparin therapy during hemodialysis for chronic renal failure and develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The nurse anticipates that which medication will be ordered for this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for bivalirudin about potential adverse effects of the drug. Which of the following effects should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

A nurse is caring for a client who has variant angina and is prescribed verapamil. Which of the following are expected outcomes of this medication? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed apixaban (Eliquis) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instructions should be included in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving heparin therapy via continuous IV infusion for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to evaluate therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy?