The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

History of hypertension

History of stroke

History of peptic ulcer disease

History of diabetes mellitus.

Shortness of breath.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one. This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one. Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy. In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.

Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.

Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.

Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs.Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes.Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.

Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.

Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

A. History of hypertension B. History of stroke C. History of peptic ulcer disease D. History of diabetes mellitus. E. Shortness of breath.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

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The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation