A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for bivalirudin about potential adverse effects of the drug. Which of the following effects should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Headache

Fever

Chest pain

Backache E.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,E

The nurse should include headache and dyspnea as potential adverse effects of bivalirudin. According to the drug information from various sources, bivalirudin can cause common side effects such as headache, nausea, low or high blood pressure, chest pain, abdominal pain, and shortness of breath (dyspnea).

These side effects should be reported to the provider if they are severe or persistent.

Choice B is wrong because fever is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.

However, fever can be a sign of infection or an allergic reaction to the drug, which should be reported to the provider immediately.

Choice C is wrong because chest pain is not an adverse effect of bivalirudin, but rather a symptom of angina, which is one of the conditions that bivalirudin is used to treat.

Chest pain can also indicate a heart attack or other serious cardiac problems, which require immediate medical attention.

Choice D is wrong because backache is not a common side effect of bivalirudin.

However, backache can be a sign of bleeding in the kidneys or other organs, which can be a serious complication of bivalirudin therapy.

Therefore, any unusual pain or swelling in the back or abdomen should be reported to the provider as soon as possible.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A history of stroke is an absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI).This is because thrombolytics can increase the risk of intracranial hemorrhage and worsen the neurological outcome.

Choice A is wrong because history of hypertension is not an absolute contraindication, but a relative one.This means that the benefits of thrombolytic therapy may outweigh the risks in some cases, depending on the severity and duration of hypertension.

Choice C is wrong because history of peptic ulcer disease is also a relative contraindication, not an absolute one.Thrombolytics can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, but this can be managed with proton pump inhibitors or histamine-2 blockers.

Choice D is wrong because history of diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication at all to thrombolytic therapy.In fact, some studies have shown that diabetic patients with AMI may benefit more from thrombolytic therapy than non-diabetic patients.

A. Omeprazole B. Ranitidine C. Sucralfate D. Misoprostol.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) that reduces the production of stomach acid.

Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots from forming.

Both drugs can increase the risk of bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in clients with peptic ulcer disease.Therefore, they should not be used together unless absolutely necessary.

Choice B. Ranitidine is wrong because ranitidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2RA) that also reduces the production of stomach acid, but to a lesser extent than PPIs.Ranitidine does not interact significantly with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice C. Sucralfate is wrong because sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that forms a barrier over ulcers and protects them from acid and enzymes.Sucralfate does not affect the coagulation system and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

Choice D. Misoprostol is wrong because misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin that inhibits gastric acid secretion and increases bicarbonate and mucus production.

Misoprostol is used to prevent ulcers in clients who take NSAIDs, which can cause ulcers and bleeding.

Misoprostol does not interact with dabigatran and does not increase the risk of bleeding.

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A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for bivalirudin about potential adverse effects of the drug. Which of the following effects should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse recognizes what absolute contraindication to the administration of a thrombolytic to a patient having an acute myocardial infarction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who is prescribed dabigatran and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications can increase the risk of bleeding in this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving argatroban IV for HIT and requires urgent surgery. The nurse should stop the infusion at least how many hours before the surgery?

The patient has been receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) result is 90 seconds (therapeutic range: 60-80 seconds). What will be included in patient care? (Select all that apply.).

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A patient is ordered to start an IV continuous Heparin drip. Prior to starting the medication, the nurse would ensure what information is gathered correctly before initiating the drip? Select all that apply: *.

A client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for treatment of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in patient teaching? Select all that apply.

A patient has been prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa) for atrial fibrillation (AF). Which laboratory test should be monitored while on this medication?

A client who has atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran etexilate mesylate (Pradaxa). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following findings immediately? (Select all that apply.)