A client who regularly takes metformin has developed a severe infection. How will the infection change the established diabetic regimen?

Metformin will be given more frequently to decrease blood sugar.

Metformin will result in better regulation of blood sugar.

Metformin is contraindicated in the presence of an infection.

Metformin will allow the client to decrease the absorption of glucose

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Metformin is an oral medication used to lower blood sugar levels in clients with type 2 diabetes. It works by decreasing the production and absorption of glucose in the liver and intestines, respectively. However, metformin is contraindicated in clients with severe infections, as the drug can increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream.

During a severe infection, the body may experience a state of inflammation and stress, which can cause metabolic changes that increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis. Therefore, metformin should be temporarily discontinued in clients with severe infections and resumed only after the infection has been successfully treated and resolved.

In the meantime, the client's diabetic regimen may need to be adjusted to maintain appropriate blood sugar levels. This may include the use of alternative medications such as insulin, which can be used to control blood sugar levels during times of illness or infection. The healthcare provider will determine the appropriate management plan based on the individual client's needs and medical history.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental illness that requires lifelong treatment. Antipsychotic medications are the cornerstone of treatment for schizophrenia, and they work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. These medications are effective in reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, and can also improve negative symptoms like apathy and lack of motivation.

While chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, and haloperidol are all first-generation or "typical" antipsychotic medications, they are less commonly used today due to their side effect profile, which can include movement disorders such as tardive dyskinesia. Olanzapine, on the other hand, is a second-generation or "atypical" antipsychotic medication that is commonly used today due to its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, as well as its more favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

A. Ibuprofen B. Hydrochlorothiazide C. Diltiazem D. Prednisone

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A: Ibuprofen does not typically interact with calcium citrate to decrease its effects. Instead, ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal irritation and, with long-term use, may affect kidney function.

B: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. It does not decrease the effects of calcium citrate; rather, it could potentially cause hypercalcemia if used concurrently with calcium supplements.

C: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina. While it affects calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, it does not typically interact with calcium citrate supplements to decrease their effectiveness.

D: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can decrease calcium absorption and increase calcium excretion, leading to lower bone density. Long-term use of prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, making it counterproductive when taken with calcium citrate for bone health.

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A client who regularly takes metformin has developed a severe infection. How will the infection change the established diabetic regimen?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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