In light of current treatment modalities, the nurse should anticipate that the client newly diagnosed with schizophrenia will most likely be prescribed what drug?

Chlorpromazine

Fluphenazine

Haloperidol

Olanzapine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental illness that requires lifelong treatment. Antipsychotic medications are the cornerstone of treatment for schizophrenia, and they work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. These medications are effective in reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, and can also improve negative symptoms like apathy and lack of motivation.

While chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, and haloperidol are all first-generation or "typical" antipsychotic medications, they are less commonly used today due to their side effect profile, which can include movement disorders such as tardive dyskinesia. Olanzapine, on the other hand, is a second-generation or "atypical" antipsychotic medication that is commonly used today due to its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, as well as its more favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Atomoxetine is a non-stimulant medication that is used to treat attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Unlike central nervous system (CNS) stimulants such as dextroamphetamine, dexmethylphenidate, and dextroamphetamine/amphetamine, atomoxetine does not have a high risk of abuse or dependence.

CNS stimulants like dextroamphetamine, dexmethylphenidate, and dextroamphetamine/amphetamine can be effective in treating ADHD symptoms, but they can also be abused and lead to dependence. These medications work by increasing levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain, which can improve focus and attention. However, they also have the potential to be misused, particularly by individuals seeking a "high" or increased alertness.

In contrast, atomoxetine works by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine in the brain. This mechanism of action does not produce the same effects on dopamine levels as CNS stimulants, and it is not associated with a high risk of abuse or dependence. However, it may take several weeks for the full therapeutic effects of atomoxetine to be seen, and it may not be as effective as CNS stimulants for some individuals with ADHD.

A. Oral B. Intravenous C. Intranasal D. Topical

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Calcitonin is a medication used to treat postmenopausal osteoporosis in older adults. It works by inhibiting bone resorption and decreasing the breakdown of bone tissue. Calcitonin is available in several forms, including intranasal spray, subcutaneous injection, and intravenous infusion. However, for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis, calcitonin is most commonly administered via intranasal spray.

Intranasal calcitonin is easy to use and well-tolerated by most clients. It is absorbed through the nasal mucosa and reaches peak blood levels within 30-60 minutes after administration. The medication is usually administered once daily, alternating nostrils with each dose.

Other routes of administration, such as subcutaneous injection and intravenous infusion, may be used in certain situations, such as for the treatment of Paget's disease of bone or hypercalcemia. However, these routes of administration are less commonly used for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis in older adults. The healthcare provider will determine the appropriate route of administration based on the individual client's needs and medical history.

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In light of current treatment modalities, the nurse should anticipate that the client newly diagnosed with schizophrenia will most likely be prescribed what drug?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is being prescribed a central nervous system stimulant. Which will haw lowest risk of abuse and dependence?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

An older adult client has been diagnosed with postmenopausal osteoporosis and has been prescribed calcitonin. The nurse should anticipate administration by what route’

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is started on levothyroxine for the treatment of hypothyroidism. During client teaching, the nurse indicates that the dosage may be increased how often until symptoms are relieved?

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The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse understands that the client's condition is thought to be most likely related to an increased level of activity of what neurotransmitter?

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