A client is diagnosed with overdose of diazepam. What drug does the nurse anticipate being administered?

Disulfiram C

Methadone

Flumazenil C

Naloxone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Flumazenil is a medication that is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, including diazepam. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that are used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and other conditions. However, they can also be abused or taken in excessive doses, leading to overdose.

Flumazenil works by binding to the same receptors in the brain that benzodiazepines bind to, but it has the opposite effect. Flumazenil blocks the activity of benzodiazepines and can rapidly reverse the effects of an overdose, including respiratory depression, sedation, and coma.

It is important to note that flumazenil should only be used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose and should be administered under close medical supervision. Flumazenil may cause seizures in clients who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, and it should not be used as a substitute for appropriate medical care and monitoring.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental illness that requires lifelong treatment. Antipsychotic medications are the cornerstone of treatment for schizophrenia, and they work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. These medications are effective in reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, and can also improve negative symptoms like apathy and lack of motivation.

While chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, and haloperidol are all first-generation or "typical" antipsychotic medications, they are less commonly used today due to their side effect profile, which can include movement disorders such as tardive dyskinesia. Olanzapine, on the other hand, is a second-generation or "atypical" antipsychotic medication that is commonly used today due to its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, as well as its more favorable side effect profile compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

A. Metformin will be given more frequently to decrease blood sugar. B. Metformin will result in better regulation of blood sugar. C. Metformin is contraindicated in the presence of an infection. D. Metformin will allow the client to decrease the absorption of glucose

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Metformin is an oral medication used to lower blood sugar levels in clients with type 2 diabetes. It works by decreasing the production and absorption of glucose in the liver and intestines, respectively. However, metformin is contraindicated in clients with severe infections, as the drug can increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication characterized by the buildup of lactic acid in the bloodstream.

During a severe infection, the body may experience a state of inflammation and stress, which can cause metabolic changes that increase the risk of developing lactic acidosis. Therefore, metformin should be temporarily discontinued in clients with severe infections and resumed only after the infection has been successfully treated and resolved.

In the meantime, the client's diabetic regimen may need to be adjusted to maintain appropriate blood sugar levels. This may include the use of alternative medications such as insulin, which can be used to control blood sugar levels during times of illness or infection. The healthcare provider will determine the appropriate management plan based on the individual client's needs and medical history.

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A client is diagnosed with overdose of diazepam. What drug does the nurse anticipate being administered?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

In light of current treatment modalities, the nurse should anticipate that the client newly diagnosed with schizophrenia will most likely be prescribed what drug?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who regularly takes metformin has developed a severe infection. How will the infection change the established diabetic regimen?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A female client is preparing to begin treatment for infertility. What hormone would the nurse expect to be included in treatment?

The nurse is preparing to administer 20 units of NPH insulin to a client. Before administering the medication, the nurse should implement which intervention?

An older adult client has been diagnosed with postmenopausal osteoporosis and has been prescribed calcitonin. The nurse should anticipate administration by what route’

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