A client who has Type 2 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse, "Why did I develop diabetes?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Your kidneys are not able to reabsorb water which leads to Type 2 diabetes mellitus."
"Your body is destroying the cells that secrete insulin."
"An infection in your pancreas destroyed the cells that make insulin."
"Your body has insulin resistance and decreased insulin secretion."
The Correct Answer is D
A. This statement is incorrect as it describes a condition related to diabetes insipidus, not diabetes mellitus.
B. This statement describes the autoimmune process in Type 1 diabetes, not Type 2 diabetes.
C. This statement is inaccurate for Type 2 diabetes; it is more related to acute pancreatitis or Type 1 diabetes.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance and decreased insulin secretion by the pancreas.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely given solely because of hemophilia A. They may be indicated based on the client's overall health and the procedure.
B. Packed RBCs are not typically needed for wisdom teeth extractions in clients with hemophilia A, as these procedures do not usually cause significant blood loss.
C. Recombinant factor VIII is the specific treatment for hemophilia A and is administered prior to procedures to prevent bleeding.
D. Fresh frozen plasma contains clotting factors but is not the treatment of choice for hemophilia A. Recombinant factor VIII is preferred due to its specific action and lower risk of complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Tremor is not a common adverse effect of atenolol.
B. Constipation is not typically associated with atenolol.
C. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker that can decrease heart rate and blood pressure.
D. Cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not beta-blockers like atenolol.
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